Monday, March 24, 2025

 Questions for UPSC (IAS Prelims) Based on News of 24 April 2025.

1. Consider the following statements regarding the National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP):

  1. NTEP is a vertical health programme focusing on the elimination of TB.
  2. It provides free TB diagnosis and treatment only in government health facilities.
  3. The programme has introduced a shorter, all-oral BPaLM regimen for drug-resistant TB.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 1 and 3 only
  • (c) 2 and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
Explanation: NTEP is a vertical health programme focusing on TB elimination. It provides free TB diagnosis and treatment in both public and some private facilities under partnerships. The BPaLM regimen, which consists of Bedaquiline, Pretomanid, Linezolid, and Moxifloxacin, is introduced for drug-resistant TB.

 

2. With reference to the Ayushman Bharat Scheme, consider the following statements:

  1. It has two major components: Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY) and Ayushman Arogya Mandirs (AAMs).
  2. AAMs serve as primary care centres that provide diagnostic and treatment services for TB.
  3. AB-PMJAY offers insurance coverage for only secondary and tertiary care.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 1 and 3 only
  • (c) 2 and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2, and 3
Explanation: Ayushman Bharat has two components - AB-PMJAY provides financial protection for secondary and tertiary care, while AAMs provide comprehensive primary healthcare, including TB diagnosis and treatment. Both are part of India’s integrated healthcare strategy.


3. Which of the following measures have been adopted by India to strengthen the fight against Tuberculosis?

  1. Expansion of molecular testing for rapid detection.
  2. Introduction of the BPaLM regimen for drug-resistant TB.
  3. Doubling the nutritional support under the Ni-kshay Poshan Yojana (NPY).
  4. Use of Artificial Intelligence for integrated health screening.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

  • (a) 1, 2, and 3 only
  • (b) 1 and 4 only
  • (c) 2, 3, and 4 only
  • (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Explanation: India has adopted various measures including molecular testing, the BPaLM regimen, increased financial assistance under the NPY, and AI-enabled screening for TB alongside other diseases.


4. Consider the following statements regarding the Ni-kshay Poshan Yojana (NPY):

  1. It provides direct nutritional support to TB patients.
  2. The financial assistance under NPY has been doubled to ₹1,000 per month.
  3. The scheme covers the entire treatment period for TB patients.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 2 and 3 only
  • (c) 1 and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2, and 3
Explanation: Ni-kshay Poshan Yojana provides ₹1,000 per month to TB patients throughout their treatment period, ensuring financial assistance for nutrition and recovery.


5. Which of the following best describes ‘Intersectionality’ in the context of TB care as mentioned in the article?

  • (a) It refers to the study of disease patterns and epidemiology.
  • (b) It is the analysis of how multiple factors like gender, caste, and socio-economic status influence health outcomes.
  • (c) It denotes the government’s approach to universal health insurance.
  • (d) It involves using AI and technological integration in TB diagnosis.

Answer: (b) It is the analysis of how multiple factors like gender, caste, and socio-economic status influence health outcomes.
Explanation: Intersectionality refers to the overlapping social and demographic factors affecting an individual's health experience and outcomes. In the context of TB care, it involves recognizing and addressing inequalities in healthcare access and outcomes.

 

1. Consider the following statements regarding Tuberculosis (TB) management in India:

  1. TB treatment in India follows a uniform "one-size-fits-all" approach across the country.
  2. Psychosocial support and community-led advocacy are essential components of TB care.
  3. Corporate social responsibility (CSR) can play a role in supporting TB control efforts.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 2 and 3 only
  • (c) 1 and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation: TB care in India is moving towards a person-centered approach rather than a "one-size-fits-all" system. Psychosocial support and advocacy led by TB survivors are critical for tackling stigma and ensuring treatment completion. Corporate CSR initiatives can contribute to TB control under their social responsibility programs.


2. With reference to the challenges in TB care, consider the following statements:

  1. TB affects not only physical health but also has social and economic impacts.
  2. Stigma and discrimination are often experienced by TB patients.
  3. Multisectoral action is necessary to combat TB effectively.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 2 and 3 only
  • (c) 1 and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2, and 3
Explanation: TB has multifaceted impacts on individuals, affecting their health, employment, and social networks. Stigma remains a significant issue, leading to isolation. Effective TB control requires the involvement of various sectors, including healthcare, corporate entities, policymakers, and the media.


3. Which of the following actions are considered essential to ensure comprehensive TB care in India?

  1. Training health workers in both clinical and psychosocial support.
  2. Strengthening airborne infection control measures.
  3. Promoting TB-related health insurance schemes.
  4. Increasing community engagement through TB Champions.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 2, 3, and 4 only
  • (c) 1, 3, and 4 only
  • (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Explanation: A comprehensive TB care response includes training health workers, implementing infection control measures, promoting TB insurance schemes, and mobilizing TB Champions for advocacy and awareness.


4. Consider the following statements regarding the role of media in TB awareness:

  1. The media plays a significant role in reducing TB stigma by promoting awareness.
  2. Accurate and science-based reporting on TB can encourage timely diagnosis and treatment.
  3. Misinformation in media has no impact on TB management.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 2 and 3 only
  • (c) 1 and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Media is crucial in dispelling myths and reducing stigma around TB by providing accurate information. However, misinformation can have a negative impact, deterring people from seeking treatment and contributing to social stigma.


5. In the context of India's National Strategic Plan (NSP) for TB elimination, which of the following are key components?

  1. Ensuring uninterrupted drug supply for TB patients.
  2. Promoting corporate social responsibility (CSR) initiatives in TB care.
  3. Developing point-of-care diagnostic tools.
  4. Establishing community-led feedback mechanisms.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

  • (a) 1, 2, and 3 only
  • (b) 2, 3, and 4 only
  • (c) 1, 3, and 4 only
  • (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Explanation: The NSP for TB elimination includes ensuring access to TB drugs, encouraging CSR support, advancing diagnostic tools, and establishing community-driven feedback systems to improve care quality.

 

1. Consider the following statements regarding the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005:

  1. The RTI Act allows citizens to seek access to personal information if it serves a larger public interest.
  2. The recent amendment under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, prohibits the disclosure of any personal information, irrespective of public interest.
  3. The Supreme Court's 2017 judgment on the right to privacy invalidated the RTI Act’s provisions related to the disclosure of personal information.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 2 and 3 only
  • (c) 1 and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:

  • The RTI Act previously allowed the disclosure of personal information if it served a larger public interest.
  • The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, has now prohibited the disclosure of any personal information.
  • The Supreme Court's judgment upheld the right to privacy, but it did not invalidate the RTI provisions; rather, it emphasized a balance between privacy and public interest.

2. The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 has introduced which of the following changes to the RTI Act, 2005?

  1. It prohibits the disclosure of personal information even if public interest is established.
  2. It empowers public authorities to selectively decide which personal information can be published.
  3. It repeals the entire Section 8 of the RTI Act.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

  • (a) 1 only
  • (b) 1 and 2 only
  • (c) 2 and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:

  • The amendment prohibits the disclosure of personal information, even when justified by public interest.
  • Public authorities can now determine which personal data should be published based on other laws.
  • However, the entire Section 8 of the RTI Act has not been repealed — only the specific provision under Section 8(1)(j) was affected.

3. With reference to the Right to Privacy in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The right to privacy is a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution.
  2. The right to privacy automatically overrides the right to information in all cases.
  3. The Puttaswamy judgment of 2017 established the constitutional validity of the right to privacy.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 1 and 3 only
  • (c) 2 and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:

  • The right to privacy is a fundamental right under Article 21 (Protection of Life and Personal Liberty).
  • The Supreme Court's Puttaswamy judgment (2017) affirmed this right.
  • However, the right to privacy does not automatically override the right to information. The courts and authorities apply a balancing test to assess public interest against privacy concerns.

4. Which of the following bodies are responsible for implementing and monitoring the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005?

  1. State Information Commissions
  2. Central Information Commission
  3. National Human Rights Commission
  4. Public Information Officers (PIOs)

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 1, 2, and 4 only
  • (c) 3 and 4 only
  • (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (b) 1, 2, and 4 only
Explanation:

  • The Central Information Commission (CIC) and State Information Commissions (SIC) are responsible for monitoring and enforcing the RTI Act.
  • Public Information Officers (PIOs) are appointed within public authorities to provide information to applicants under the RTI Act.
  • The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is not directly responsible for RTI implementation.

5. Consider the following statements regarding the concept of “Larger Public Interest” under the RTI Act:

  1. The term “Larger Public Interest” is explicitly defined in the RTI Act, 2005.
  2. Determining the existence of a larger public interest involves a case-by-case analysis.
  3. Information related to corruption or human rights violations is generally considered in the larger public interest.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 2 and 3 only
  • (c) 1 and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:

  • The term “Larger Public Interest” is not explicitly defined in the RTI Act, 2005. It is interpreted on a case-by-case basis by the Information Commissions and courts.
  • Corruption and human rights violations are generally considered matters of larger public interest and may justify the disclosure of personal information.

1. Consider the following statements regarding the impact of Artificial Intelligence (AI) in the Indian IT Industry:

  1. The primary impact of AI in the Indian IT sector will be felt in low-level tasks such as testing and quality assurance.
  2. AI will completely replace human oversight in software development.
  3. The use of AI in software development is expected to reduce the need for custom in-house applications.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) 1 only
  • (b) 1 and 2 only
  • (c) 2 and 3 only
  • (d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:

  • The biggest impact of AI in the Indian IT sector will be seen in low-level tasks like testing and quality assurance.
  • However, AI will not replace human oversight entirely in software development as human intervention is necessary for error correction and decision-making.
  • The article suggests that AI will lower software development costs, encouraging more in-house custom applications rather than off-the-shelf products.

2. With reference to the concept of ‘Data Daan’, consider the following statements:

  1. ‘Data Daan’ is an initiative encouraging voluntary data sharing for AI model development in India.
  2. The initiative promotes ethical data sharing as a response to concerns over AI models violating copyright laws.
  3. It is a government-sponsored initiative under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 2 and 3 only
  • (c) 1 and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:

  • ‘Data Daan’ is a voluntary ethical movement that encourages organisations and public bodies to share datasets to support AI model development.
  • It addresses concerns regarding copyright violations in AI training.
  • However, it is not a government-sponsored initiative. It is led by the AI4India.org platform.

3. Consider the following initiatives related to AI and language translation in India:

  1. Bhashini – A language translation platform by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
  2. Anuvadini – An AI-driven translation tool developed by the All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE).
  3. AI4Bharat – An initiative by IIT-Madras for creating AI models and datasets in Indian languages.

Which of the above initiatives are correctly matched?

  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 2 and 3 only
  • (c) 1 and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:

  • Bhashini is a MeitY initiative focused on breaking language barriers using AI.
  • Anuvadini by AICTE uses AI to translate textbooks for schools and universities.
  • AI4Bharat from IIT-Madras provides a variety of Indian language datasets and models for AI applications.

4. Which of the following is a key societal focus of India’s AI development efforts?

  • (a) Enhancing military applications of AI
  • (b) Overcoming language barriers through AI
  • (c) Developing autonomous vehicles using AI
  • (d) Establishing AI-powered stock market algorithms

Answer: (b) Overcoming language barriers through AI
Explanation:

  • India’s AI focus is primarily on overcoming language barriers through initiatives like Bhashini and Anuvadini, as highlighted in the article.
  • This supports better communication and access to knowledge across various Indian languages.

5. With reference to Artificial Intelligence (AI) in India, consider the following statements:

  1. AI applications are increasingly used in areas like healthcare, education, and governance.
  2. Indian start-ups like Paralaxiom and Innoplexus are leading AI research and development.
  3. UIDAI (Unique Identification Authority of India) has collaborated with Sarvam AI for voice-based AI models.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 2 and 3 only
  • (c) 1 and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:

  • AI is being used to improve services in healthcare, education, and governance.
  • Paralaxiom (Bengaluru) focuses on vision AI for public spaces, while Innoplexus (Pune) leads in AI-led drug discovery.
  • Sarvam AI, incubated from IIT-Madras, is collaborating with UIDAI to provide AI-powered voice solutions.

1. With reference to Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHAs), consider the following statements:

  1. ASHAs are community health workers instituted by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare under the National Health Mission (NHM).
  2. Their primary role is to provide curative health care services in hospitals.
  3. ASHAs are entitled to a fixed monthly salary along with additional performance-based incentives.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) 1 only
  • (b) 1 and 3 only
  • (c) 2 and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: ASHAs are community health workers under the National Health Mission (NHM), providing basic healthcare services at the grassroots level.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Their role is not to provide curative services in hospitals but to act as a liaison between the community and the healthcare system, facilitating access to maternal care, immunization, and disease prevention.
  • Statement 3 is correct: ASHAs receive performance-based incentives rather than a fixed monthly salary. However, some states provide a nominal fixed payment along with the incentives.

2. Consider the following demands made by ASHA workers during their protest:

  1. Fixed monthly remuneration
  2. Retirement benefits
  3. Paid maternity leave

Which of the above demands are generally highlighted by ASHA workers in their protests?

  • (a) 1 only
  • (b) 1 and 2 only
  • (c) 2 and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:

  • ASHA workers often demand fixed monthly salaries instead of solely performance-based incentives.
  • Retirement benefits like pensions are another major demand since they are not formally recognized as government employees.
  • Paid maternity leave is also a critical demand, as many ASHA workers are women who lack essential social security protections.

3. With reference to ASHA workers, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. ASHA workers are present in both urban and rural areas across India.
  2. They are key stakeholders in the implementation of maternal and child health programs.
  3. ASHA workers are directly employed as government employees.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 2 and 3 only
  • (c) 1 and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: ASHA workers operate in both urban and rural areas, although their presence is more prominent in rural regions.
  • Statement 2 is correct: They are essential in implementing programs related to maternal and child health, immunization, and disease surveillance.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: ASHAs are not considered government employees. They are classified as volunteers who receive incentives rather than fixed wages.

4. Which of the following programs involves Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHAs) as key implementers?

  1. Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY)
  2. Ayushman Bharat Scheme
  3. Poshan Abhiyaan
  4. National Tuberculosis Elimination Program (NTEP)

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 2 and 3 only
  • (c) 1, 3, and 4 only
  • (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (c) 1, 3, and 4 only
Explanation:

  • Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY): ASHAs play a critical role in encouraging institutional deliveries and providing maternal care services.
  • Ayushman Bharat Scheme: While it focuses on secondary and tertiary healthcare, ASHAs are not directly involved.
  • Poshan Abhiyaan: ASHAs assist in nutrition awareness, growth monitoring, and anemia management.
  • National Tuberculosis Elimination Program (NTEP): ASHAs contribute to TB detection, treatment adherence, and awareness generation.

5. The Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHAs) in India are primarily responsible for which of the following functions?

  1. Promoting institutional deliveries
  2. Ensuring immunization of children
  3. Providing financial assistance to patients undergoing surgeries
  4. Spreading awareness about sanitation and hygiene

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • (a) 1, 2, and 4 only
  • (b) 1, 3, and 4 only
  • (c) 2, 3, and 4 only
  • (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 2, and 4 only
Explanation:

  • ASHAs are community health workers who facilitate institutional deliveries, ensure full immunization of children, and create awareness about sanitation and hygiene.
  • However, they are not responsible for providing financial assistance for surgeries, which is typically managed through schemes like Ayushman Bharat.

1. With reference to the role of Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHAs) and TB Champions, consider the following statements:

  1. Both ASHAs and TB Champions work as community health volunteers providing support to patients.
  2. TB Champions are exclusively appointed by the government to ensure TB treatment compliance.
  3. ASHAs play a key role in identifying suspected TB cases at the community level.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) 1 and 3 only
  • (b) 1 and 2 only
  • (c) 2 and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Both ASHAs and TB Champions act as community health workers. While ASHAs are formally part of the healthcare system under the National Health Mission (NHM), TB Champions are typically TB survivors who voluntarily provide support.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: TB Champions are not government-appointed. They are often volunteers from networks of TB survivors, providing psychosocial support and promoting awareness.
  • Statement 3 is correct: ASHAs are actively involved in the early detection of TB cases through community-level surveillance and supporting treatment adherence.

2. Which of the following are key functions performed by TB Champions in India?

  1. Providing psychosocial support to TB patients
  2. Ensuring accurate diagnosis using CBNAAT or smear microscopy
  3. Conducting community awareness campaigns to reduce stigma
  4. Offering financial incentives to TB patients

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • (a) 1 and 3 only
  • (b) 1, 2, and 3 only
  • (c) 2 and 4 only
  • (d) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:

  • TB Champions offer psychosocial support to TB patients, helping them adhere to treatment and cope with stigma.
  • They often conduct awareness campaigns to reduce societal stigma and create a more supportive environment.
  • They do not perform diagnostic tests like CBNAAT or smear microscopy — these are done in healthcare facilities.
  • They also do not provide financial incentives directly. Financial support, like the Nikshay Poshan Yojana, is handled by government schemes.

3. Consider the following statements regarding the Nikshay Poshan Yojana:

  1. It provides financial assistance to TB patients for their nutritional needs.
  2. The scheme is applicable only to patients with drug-resistant TB.
  3. The assistance is directly transferred to the beneficiary’s bank account.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) 1 and 3 only
  • (b) 2 and 3 only
  • (c) 1 and 2 only
  • (d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Nikshay Poshan Yojana provides financial assistance for nutritional support to all TB patients, not just drug-resistant cases.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The scheme is not limited to drug-resistant TB; it covers all categories of TB patients.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Under the scheme, the funds are directly transferred to the patient’s bank account via Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT).

4. With reference to TB diagnosis in India, which of the following diagnostic methods are commonly used?

  1. Smear Microscopy
  2. CBNAAT (Cartridge-Based Nucleic Acid Amplification Test)
  3. Truenat Test
  4. MRI Scan

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 1, 2, and 3 only
  • (c) 3 and 4 only
  • (d) 2 and 4 only

Answer: (b) 1, 2, and 3 only
Explanation:

  • Smear Microscopy is a traditional and cost-effective method for detecting TB through sputum examination.
  • CBNAAT and Truenat are advanced molecular diagnostic tools that detect TB bacteria and identify drug resistance quickly.
  • MRI Scan is not used for TB diagnosis; it is primarily used for imaging in other medical conditions.

5. In the context of TB eradication, consider the following initiatives in India:

  1. National Strategic Plan for Tuberculosis Elimination
  2. TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyan
  3. Revised National Tuberculosis Control Program (RNTCP)
  4. Ayushman Bharat Yojana

Which of the above are directly related to TB control and management?

  • (a) 1, 2, and 3 only
  • (b) 1 and 3 only
  • (c) 2 and 4 only
  • (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 2, and 3 only
Explanation:

  • The National Strategic Plan for TB Elimination aims to eliminate TB in India by 2025.
  • TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyan is a community-driven initiative to ensure early detection and treatment with the support of TB Champions.
  • The Revised National Tuberculosis Control Program (RNTCP) was renamed as the National Tuberculosis Elimination Program (NTEP) in 2020, with an emphasis on universal access to TB care.
  • While Ayushman Bharat Yojana provides healthcare coverage, it is not exclusively focused on TB.

1. With reference to the censorship of books during British rule in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The Sea Customs Act was used by the British administration to prohibit the entry of certain books into India.
  2. M.N. Roy’s book was banned due to its criticism of the British Administration.
  3. Lala Lajpat Rai’s book “England’s Debt to India” was banned for promoting revolutionary activities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (a) 1 only
  • (b) 1 and 2 only
  • (c) 1 and 3 only
  • (d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Sea Customs Act was frequently used by the British to censor and prohibit the entry of books and other publications that were considered seditious or anti-British.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: M.N. Roy’s book was banned not solely due to its criticism of British rule, but because he and his wife were accused of participating in a foreign conspiracy to overthrow the British government in India.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Lala Lajpat Rai’s book was banned for its alleged false and malicious misrepresentations of the British administration, not for promoting revolutionary activities.

2. Consider the following personalities and their works:

  1. Hyndman - “The Awakening of Asia”
  2. Bryan - “British Rule in India”
  3. M.N. Roy - “Evolution of Economic Organisation of India”
  4. Lala Lajpat Rai - “England’s Debt to India”

Which of the above works were banned by the British government under the Sea Customs Act?

  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 3 and 4 only
  • (c) 1, 2, and 4 only
  • (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Explanation:

  • All four works were banned under the Sea Customs Act.
  • Hyndman’s book and Bryan’s book were prohibited for their critical views on British rule.
  • Lala Lajpat Rai’s work was banned for highlighting economic exploitation under British rule.
  • M.N. Roy’s book was banned due to his alleged involvement in a foreign conspiracy to overthrow the British government.

3. With reference to the Sea Customs Act used during British rule, which of the following statements is correct?

  • (a) It was originally enacted to prevent the smuggling of goods into India.
  • (b) It was primarily used as a tool for censoring nationalist and revolutionary literature.
  • (c) It was enacted as part of the Government of India Act, 1935.
  • (d) It provided for the arrest of authors and publishers without trial.

Answer: (b) It was primarily used as a tool for censoring nationalist and revolutionary literature.
Explanation:

  • The Sea Customs Act was initially meant for regulating trade and preventing smuggling.
  • However, it was often used as a tool of political censorship by the British administration to prohibit the import of nationalist and revolutionary publications that criticized colonial rule.
  • It did not directly provide for the arrest of authors without trial, though those involved in sedition could be arrested under separate laws like the Sedition Act.

4. During British rule in India, which of the following individuals was accused of involvement in a foreign conspiracy to overthrow British rule?

  • (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
  • (b) M.N. Roy
  • (c) Bipin Chandra Pal
  • (d) Dadabhai Naoroji

Answer: (b) M.N. Roy
Explanation:

  • M.N. Roy was accused of involvement in a foreign conspiracy to overthrow British rule in India.
  • His revolutionary activities abroad and communist affiliations made him a target of British authorities.
  • As a result, his works, including “Evolution of Economic Organisation of India”, were banned under the Sea Customs Act.

 

1. With reference to the Kurdish people, consider the following statements:

  1. The Kurdish people are predominantly Sunni Muslims, but there are Shia Kurds and Alevi tribes among them.
  2. The Treaty of Sevres in 1920 proposed a scheme for the establishment of an independent Kurdish state.
  3. The Kurdish identity and nationalist movement emerged after the fall of the Ottoman Empire.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (a) 1 only
  • (b) 1 and 2 only
  • (c) 2 and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Kurds are predominantly Sunni Muslims, but there are Shia Kurds and Alevi tribes.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The Treaty of Sevres (1920) proposed a scheme for a Kurdish state, though it was never implemented.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Kurdish identity and nationalist aspirations existed before the fall of the Ottoman Empire and were further solidified by the denial of statehood post-World War I.

2. Consider the following pairs of Kurdish organizations and their regions of operation:

Organization

Region of Operation

Kurdistan Workers' Party (PKK)

Turkiye

Democratic Union Party (PYD)

Syria

Free Life Party of Kurdistan (PJAK)

Iran

Kurdistan Democratic Solution Party (PCDK)

Iraq

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 3 and 4 only
  • (c) 1, 2, and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Explanation:

  • The PKK operates in Turkiye and is designated as a terrorist organization by Turkiye, the U.S., and the EU.
  • The PYD operates in Syria and is affiliated with the PKK.
  • The PJAK is active in Iran, pursuing Kurdish rights and autonomy.
  • The PCDK operates in Iraq and promotes Kurdish nationalist objectives.

3. With reference to the Kurdish question, which of the following countries has officially recognized a semi-autonomous Kurdish region?

  • (a) Iran
  • (b) Iraq
  • (c) Syria
  • (d) Armenia

Answer: (b) Iraq
Explanation:

  • Iraq recognized the Kurdistan Region as a semi-autonomous region under its federal system after the adoption of its new Constitution in 2005.
  • Other Kurdish regions in Iran, Syria, and Turkiye lack formal recognition of autonomy.

4. The Treaty of Sevres (1920) is significant in the context of Kurdish history because:

  • (a) It mandated the establishment of an independent Kurdish state.
  • (b) It provided for local autonomy for predominantly Kurdish areas.
  • (c) It resulted in the unification of Kurdish tribes under one political authority.
  • (d) It enabled Kurds to gain military assistance from European powers.

Answer: (b) It provided for local autonomy for predominantly Kurdish areas.
Explanation:

  • The Treaty of Sevres proposed a scheme of local autonomy for Kurdish areas east of the Euphrates.
  • However, it was never implemented, and Kurdish aspirations for statehood remained unfulfilled.

5. The Kurdistan Workers’ Party (PKK) primarily operates in:

  • (a) Iraq
  • (b) Syria
  • (c) Turkiye
  • (d) Iran

Answer: (c) Turkiye
Explanation:

  • The PKK (Partiya Karkari Kurdistan) is primarily active in Turkiye.
  • It has waged an armed insurgency since the 1980s for Kurdish autonomy and rights.
  • The PKK is designated as a terrorist organization by Turkiye, the U.S., and the European Union.

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