Questions based
on above News.
Q1. Which of
the following statements best explains the recent Supreme Court ruling
regarding Governors and Bills passed by State Legislatures?
A.
Governors are free to decide the time they take to assent to Bills.
B. The Supreme Court has imposed a maximum time limit for Governors to
act on Bills.
C. Governors must compulsorily assent to every Bill passed by the State
Legislature.
D. Governors can reject Bills without providing reasons within a year.
Correct Answer: B
ЁЯУЭ
Explanation:
The Supreme Court, in its April 8 judgment, held that Governors must
act within a maximum of three months if they wish to withhold assent
or reserve Bills for the President's consideration. This decision aims
to end the long delays caused by lack of Constitutional time limits.
Q2. The Supreme
Court’s recent direction to fix a maximum time limit for Governors addresses
which of the following Constitutional issues?
A.
Violation of Fundamental Rights
B. Constitutional silence
C. Judicial overreach
D. Doctrine of Separation of Powers
Correct Answer: B
ЁЯУЭ
Explanation:
The term “Constitutional silence” refers to the lack of explicit
provisions in the Constitution regarding certain matters. Here, the
Constitution does not specify a time frame for Governors to act on
Bills, and the Supreme Court seeks to fill this gap through judicial
directions.
Q3. In the case
State of Punjab vs Principal Secretary to the Governor of Punjab (2023),
the Supreme Court emphasized that:
A.
The Governor can override decisions of the elected government.
B. The Governor is the real executive head of the State.
C. The real power lies with elected representatives, not the Governor.
D. The President must assent to all State Bills.
Correct Answer: C
ЁЯУЭ
Explanation:
The November 2023 ruling reaffirmed that in a parliamentary
democracy, real power lies with the elected representatives, and the Governor
is only a titular head, appointed by the President.
Q4. The Supreme
Court recently indicated it will fix specific time limits for Speakers of State
Assemblies. This is in connection with:
A.
Delay in convening Assembly sessions
B. Delay in passing State Budgets
C. Delay in deciding anti-defection cases
D. Delay in granting permission for legal prosecution
Correct Answer: C
ЁЯУЭ
Explanation:
The April 3 observations from the Supreme Court (Justice B.R. Gavai’s
Bench) addressed delays by Speakers in deciding disqualification petitions
under the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law). The court proposed fixed
time periods to prevent abuse of process.
Q5. The Tenth
Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with which of the following?
A.
Emergency provisions
B. Panchayati Raj
C. Disqualification on grounds of defection
D. Relations between the Union and States
Correct Answer: C
ЁЯУЭ
Explanation:
The Tenth Schedule, added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985, deals
with disqualification of legislators on grounds of defection, and
outlines the procedure and authority (usually the Speaker) to handle such
cases.
Q1.
With reference to the PM POSHAN Scheme, consider the following statements:
- The
material cost for cooking hot meals has been increased by 9.5% from May 1,
2025.
- The
revised per-meal material cost for upper primary students will be ₹10.17.
- The Centre
bears the full cost of foodgrains and their transportation to schools.
Which
of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1
and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3 only
Correct
Answer: C
ЁЯУЭ Explanation:
- Statement
1 is correct: The cost has been enhanced
by 9.5% due to inflation, applicable from May 1, 2025.
- Statement
2 is correct: The material cost for upper
primary students is revised to ₹10.17.
- Statement
3 is correct: The Centre bears 100% cost
of foodgrains and their transportation from FCI depots.
Q2.
Under the PM POSHAN scheme, which of the following food quantities is provided daily
per student in upper primary schools?
A. 20
gm pulses, 50 gm vegetables, 5 gm oil
B. 30 gm pulses, 75 gm vegetables, 7.5 gm oil
C. 25 gm pulses, 60 gm vegetables, 6 gm oil
D. 35 gm pulses, 80 gm vegetables, 8 gm oil
Correct
Answer: B
ЁЯУЭ Explanation:
Upper primary students are provided with:
- 30 gm
pulses
- 75 gm
vegetables
- 7.5 gm oil
These
quantities are higher than those for Bal Vatikas and primary school children,
ensuring better nutrition for older students.
Q3.
What is the approximate per-meal total cost (including foodgrain and transportation
costs) for a primary school student under the PM POSHAN scheme after the 2025
revision?
A.
₹6.78
B. ₹10.17
C. ₹12.13
D. ₹17.62
Correct
Answer: C
ЁЯУЭ Explanation:
Though the material cost alone is ₹6.78 for primary students, the total
per-meal cost including foodgrains and other components comes to
approximately ₹12.13.
Q4.
The PM POSHAN scheme currently covers which of the following?
- Bal
Vatikas
- Classes 1
to 8
- Private
unaided schools
- Aided
schools
A. 1,
2 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Correct
Answer: C
ЁЯУЭ Explanation:
The scheme covers:
- Bal
Vatikas
- Classes 1
to 8
- Government
and aided schools
It does not cover private unaided schools, hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
Q5.
Which of the following best describes the objective of the PM POSHAN scheme?
A. To
provide financial support to poor students for higher education
B. To improve sanitation facilities in rural schools
C. To provide one hot-cooked meal daily to students in school
D. To supply free textbooks and uniforms to students
Correct
Answer: C
ЁЯУЭ Explanation:
The primary goal of PM POSHAN is to serve one hot-cooked meal daily
to students in Bal Vatikas and Classes 1–8, aiming to enhance
nutrition and encourage school attendance.
Q1.
Which of the following are sources of indoor air pollution, as per the article?
- Use of
mosquito coils and incense sticks
- Vapours
from paints and plaster
- Cooking
using solid fuels
- Carbon
dioxide build-up from overcrowded spaces
A. 1
and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct
Answer: D
ЁЯУЭ Explanation:
The article mentions all four as contributors:
- 1
and 2: Household items like incense sticks and chemical vapours.
- 3:
Use of solid fuels for cooking, especially in rural areas.
- 4:
CO₂ build-up
from crowded indoor settings with poor ventilation.
Q2.
According to the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), Indoor Air Quality
(IAQ) refers to:
A. The
air quality around vehicles on city roads
B. The level of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere
C. Air quality within and around buildings related to occupant health
and comfort
D. The amount of oxygen in poorly ventilated rooms
Correct
Answer: C
ЁЯУЭ Explanation:
The EPA defines IAQ as the air quality within and around buildings,
especially in relation to health and comfort of the people using them.
Q3.
Which of the following statements regarding indoor air pollution in India
is/are correct?
- Indoor air
quality has been given the same attention as outdoor air pollution.
- Outdoor
air can infiltrate indoors, making source identification difficult.
- Most
Indian buildings are highly insulated from outdoor pollution.
A. 1
only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct
Answer: B
ЁЯУЭ Explanation:
- Statement
1 is incorrect: Indoor air pollution hasn't
received as much attention as outdoor pollution.
- Statement
2 is correct: Outdoor pollutants enter
indoors easily in India due to poor insulation.
- Statement
3 is incorrect: Most Indian buildings are not
well-insulated, unlike in developed nations.
Q4.
Which of the following health impacts are associated with indoor air pollution,
as per the article?
- Dizziness
and headaches
- Respiratory
diseases and cancer
- Cardiovascular
diseases
- Skin
infections
A. 1
and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct
Answer: B
ЁЯУЭ Explanation:
The article lists:
- Immediate
effects like headaches, fatigue, dizziness (1)
- Long-term
effects such as respiratory, cardiovascular diseases, and cancer
(2 and 3)
- Skin
infections are not mentioned.
Q5.
Which of the following strategies can help reduce indoor air pollution during
the construction/design phase?
- Use of
toxin-free cleaners and paints
- Allowing
natural light and ventilation
- Installation
of high-quality HEPA filters
- Reducing
use of volatile organic compounds
A. 1
and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct
Answer: D
ЁЯУЭ Explanation:
All four strategies are mentioned in the article as ways to improve IAQ:
- Toxin-free
materials
- Natural
light and ventilation
- HEPA
filters
- Reducing
VOCs like formaldehyde
1.
Consider the following statements about Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM):
- It is
usually diagnosed in the first trimester of pregnancy.
- GDM
increases the risk of Type 2 diabetes in the mother.
- GDM has no
long-term health impact on the child.
Which
of the above statements is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 2 and 3 only
Answer: B)
2 only
Explanation:
- Statement
1 is incorrect: GDM is usually diagnosed between 24–28 weeks, not
in the first trimester.
- Statement
2 is correct: GDM increases the mother's risk of developing Type 2
diabetes later in life.
- Statement
3 is incorrect: GDM does affect the child—it increases the risk of metabolic
diseases and insulin resistance.
2.
The concept of "Primordial Prevention" refers to:
A)
Early screening of cancer in vulnerable populations
B) Preventing disease before any risk factors develop
C) Managing diseases at an early symptomatic stage
D) Curing inherited genetic disorders in the womb
Answer: B)
Preventing disease before any risk factors develop
Explanation:
- Primordial
prevention aims to prevent the appearance
of risk factors themselves (e.g., maintaining healthy glucose levels
during early pregnancy to prevent GDM from developing at all).
- This is
different from primary prevention, which manages risk factors
before disease begins.
3.
According to recent research, what is the ideal time to screen for glucose
levels in pregnant women to prevent GDM?
A)
At the time of delivery
B) After 28 weeks of pregnancy
C) By the 8th week of pregnancy
D) After the 12th week only
Answer: C)
By the 8th week of pregnancy
Explanation:
- Research
suggests that glucose levels should be regulated by the 8th week,
as foetal development and insulin production start early.
- Delaying
until 24–28 weeks means the foetus has already been exposed to high sugar
levels.
4.
Which of the following best explains "Foetal Origin of Adult
Diseases" (Barker's Hypothesis)?
A)
Adult health is only determined by lifestyle choices.
B) Diseases in adults originate from genetic disorders only.
C) Health conditions in adulthood are influenced by conditions during foetal
development.
D) All adults inherit disease patterns from maternal DNA.
Answer: C)
Health conditions in adulthood are influenced by conditions during foetal
development.
Explanation:
- Barker's
Hypothesis proposes that exposure to
adverse conditions in the womb (e.g., maternal hyperglycemia) can program
the child’s metabolism, increasing the risk of diseases like obesity
and diabetes later in life.
5.
Why is early GDM screening especially important in India?
- Indian
women are more genetically prone to insulin resistance.
- Most
pregnant women in India visit doctors only after the first trimester.
- India
currently has one of the lowest diabetes rates in the world.
Choose
the correct option:
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A)
1 and 2 only
Explanation:
- Statement
1 is correct: Indian women have a higher genetic risk for insulin
resistance.
- Statement
2 is correct: Many women seek antenatal care only after the first
trimester, missing the early screening window.
- Statement
3 is incorrect: India has one of the highest diabetes burdens
globally, not the lowest.
1.
Consider the following statements regarding the Right to Information (RTI) Act
and its amendment through the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act:
- The
amendment will restrict access to all personal information under RTI.
- Section
8(1)(j) of the RTI Act already provides exemption for personal
information.
- The DPDP
Act deletes a provision that ensures parity between the information
available to citizens and to Parliament.
Which
of the above statements is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B)
2 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Statement
1 is incorrect: According to the government,
the amendment will not restrict all personal information, and
existing legal obligations will still apply.
- Statement
2 is correct: Section 8(1)(j) already
exempted personal information unless larger public interest justified
disclosure.
- Statement
3 is correct: A provision that stated “information
that cannot be denied to Parliament or State Legislature cannot be denied
to any person” has been deleted under the DPDP Act.
2.
Which Article of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to privacy as a
fundamental right, as cited in the RTI-DPDP amendment debate?
A)
Article 14
B) Article 19
C) Article 21
D) Article 32
Answer: C)
Article 21
Explanation:
The Supreme Court in 2017 ruled that the right to privacy is part of
Article 21, which guarantees protection of life and personal liberty.
3.
What is the main concern of civil society regarding the amendment to the RTI
Act via the DPDP Act?
A)
It increases the number of RTI applications.
B) It delays the implementation of RTI rules.
C) It may prevent access to information on public schemes involving personal
data.
D) It removes the RTI Act altogether.
Answer: C)
It may prevent access to information on public schemes involving personal data
Explanation:
Civil society fears the amendment might be misused to deny information
on government subsidies and schemes by citing personal data protection,
thereby weakening transparency and accountability.
4.
Which of the following best describes the role of Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act,
2005?
A)
It allows unlimited disclosure of government information.
B) It restricts information related to national security.
C) It exempts disclosure of personal information unless public interest
outweighs the privacy concern.
D) It provides the RTI officer discretionary power to reject any query.
Answer: C)
It exempts disclosure of personal information unless public interest outweighs
the privacy concern
Explanation:
Section 8(1)(j) strikes a balance between privacy and transparency by
denying personal information unless larger public interest justifies its
release.
5.
With reference to the Right to Information (RTI) in India, consider the following
statements:
- The RTI
Act, 2005 replaced the Freedom of Information Act, 2002.
- The RTI
Act is a constitutional right under Article 19(1)(a).
- The RTI
Act allows access to information held by private entities directly.
Which
of the above statements is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A)
1 and 2 only
Explanation:
- Statement
1 is correct: The RTI Act, 2005 replaced
the Freedom of Information Act, 2002.
- Statement
2 is correct: Though not explicitly mentioned
in the Constitution, the Supreme Court has interpreted Article 19(1)(a)
(freedom of speech and expression) to include Right to Information
as a fundamental right.
- Statement
3 is incorrect: RTI applies primarily to public
authorities. Private bodies are covered indirectly if they
receive substantial public funds or perform public functions.
6.
The right to seek information under the RTI Act is available to:
A)
All citizens of India including NRIs
B) Only Indian citizens residing in India
C) All residents of India including foreigners
D) Only government employees
Answer: A)
All citizens of India including NRIs
Explanation:
The RTI Act, 2005 states that “all citizens” of India have the right to
seek information. This includes Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) as they
retain Indian citizenship. Foreign nationals are not covered
under this right.
7.
Which of the following events or initiatives led to the origin of the Right to
Information movement in India?
A)
Anti-corruption campaign by the CBI
B) Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan (MKSS) movement in Rajasthan
C) Supreme Court's judgement on Section 377
D) Formation of the Central Vigilance Commission
Answer: B)
Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan (MKSS) movement in Rajasthan
Explanation:
The RTI movement in India has its roots in the grassroots campaign
led by MKSS in the 1990s in Rajasthan. It demanded transparency in village-level
development works, like wages and public funds used in rural employment
schemes.
8.
Which one of the following provisions was deleted from the RTI Act by the
Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023?
A)
Provision allowing appeals against PIOs
B) Provision defining information
C) Provision stating "information that cannot be denied to Parliament
cannot be denied to any citizen"
D) Provision setting time limit for reply
Answer: C)
Provision stating "information that cannot be denied to Parliament cannot
be denied to any citizen"
Explanation:
The DPDP Act, 2023, deleted this important clause from the RTI
Act. This clause ensured transparency and parity, and its removal raised
concerns over potential denial of significant public information.
9.
Which of the following fundamental rights is most directly related to the Right
to Information?
A)
Article 14 – Equality before law
B) Article 19(1)(a) – Freedom of speech and expression
C) Article 21 – Right to life and personal liberty
D) Article 22 – Protection against arbitrary arrest
Answer: B)
Article 19(1)(a)
Explanation:
The Supreme Court has interpreted the Right to Information as
part of freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a). Citizens
can make informed choices only if they have access to information.
10.
Which of the following is a correct implication of the Supreme Court’s 2017
judgement on the right to privacy (Puttaswamy case)?
A)
Privacy is not a fundamental right but a statutory one.
B) Right to privacy is included under Article 21 of the Constitution.
C) Right to privacy overrides all provisions of the RTI Act.
D) Only government officials have the right to informational privacy.
Answer: B)
Right to privacy is included under Article 21 of the Constitution
Explanation:
In the landmark Puttaswamy case (2017), the Supreme Court declared
that the right to privacy is a fundamental right under Article 21,
laying the groundwork for the DPDP Act. It, however, does not
automatically override RTI; both rights must be balanced.
