Solution of UPPCS Pre (GS Paper-1) 2025
Q.1) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The interior part of Australia is desert
and semi-desert
Reason (R): Northern Australia is situated in the temperate zone.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
b) (A) is false, but (R) is true
c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Assertion (A) is true: The interior of Australia, often
called the “Outback,” is mostly covered by deserts and semi-arid
plains such as the Great Victoria Desert, Great Sandy Desert, Gibson
Desert, and Simpson Desert. This is because the interior lies far from
the sea, receives very little rainfall (less than 250 mm annually),
and is affected by descending dry air of the subtropical high-pressure
belt.
Reason (R) is false: Northern Australia
actually lies in the tropical zone, not the temperate zone. It experiences a
tropical monsoon climate, influenced by the monsoon winds coming from the Timor
and Arafura Seas. The temperate zone lies in southern Australia (including
parts of New South Wales, Victoria, and Tasmania).
Hence, the correct answer is: (c) (A)
is true, but (R) is false.
https://www.oneearth.org/bioregions/greater-australian-interior-desert-shrublands-au7/
Q.2) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): India is the second largest mobile
gaming market in the world.
Reason (R): There are more than 950 million internet users in India.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
b) (A) is false, but (R) is true
c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Assertion (A) is true: India is in fact the
second largest gaming market in the world.
Reason (R) is true: As of March 2024, India had
approximately 954 million internet subscribers, marking a dramatic rise
from around 251 million in 2014. This growth reflects a compound annual growth
rate of over 14%, driven by nationwide digital initiatives and infrastructure
expansion.
Reason (R) does not explain the assertion (A):
More than 950 million mobile internet users does not directly explain India
being the second largest gaming market in the world. The gaming market depends
upon various other factors.
Therefore, the correct answer is: Both
(A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2064942
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2040566
Q.3) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion
(A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Babur wrote Tuzk-e-Babri in Chagatai
Turki.
Reason (R): Turki was the official language of the Mughal Court.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
b) (A) is false, but (R) is true
c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Assertion (A) is true: Babur wrote his autobiography Tuzuk-i-Baburi (also
known as Baburnama) in Chagatai Turkish, his mother
tongue and the literary language of the Timurids.
Reason (R) is false: The official language of
the Mughal court was Persian, not Turki. Persian continued to be the administrative and
cultural language throughout most of the Mughal Empire.
Hence, (A) is true, but (R) is false
Source:https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/social-science/tuzuk-i-babari/
https://www.egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/20284/1/Unit-31.pdf
Tamil Nadu Old SCERT, Class XI, Chapter: 20 –
The Mughal Empire, Page: 222.
https://archive.org/details/BabarNama
Q.4) Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct
answer by using the code given below the lists.
|
List – I (Coal Field) |
List – II (Country) |
|
A. Appalachian |
1. England |
|
B. Lancashire |
2. Germany |
|
C. Ruhr |
3. Russia |
|
D. Kuzbass |
4. United States of
America |
Code:
A B C D
a) 4 1 2 3
b) 1 4 3 2
c) 1 4 2 3
d) 4 1 3 2
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
4. Appalachian — 4. United States of America
The Appalachian coalfield is one of the oldest
and richest coal-producing regions in the world. It stretches from Pennsylvania
in the north to Alabama in the south. This region has high-quality bituminous
coal and played a major role in powering the industrial growth of the United
States.
1. Lancashire — 1. England
The Lancashire coalfield is located in
northwestern England. It was extremely important during the Industrial
Revolution, supplying coal to factories, railways, and homes in cities like
Manchester and Liverpool.
2. Ruhr — 2. Germany
The Ruhr coalfield lies in western Germany and
is one of Europe’s most industrialized regions. It has abundant coal and iron
deposits, which led to the development of major steel, chemical, and
engineering industries in the area
3. Kuzbass (Kuznetsk Basin) — 3. Russia
The Kuzbass coalfield is situated in
southwestern Siberia. It is the largest coal-producing region in Russia and a
major center for heavy industries such as steel and power generation.
Hence, the Correct Code is: (a) 4 – 1 – 2 – 3
Source:
Fundamentals of Human Geography, Class XII,
Chapter: 6 Secondary Activities, Page: 51, 52.
https://nmrs.org.uk/mines-map/coal-mining-in-the-british-isles/lancashire-coalfield/
https://thecoalhub.com/coal-production-in-kuzbass-down-6-1-in-jan-jun-2025.html
Q.5) With reference to ‘Ecosystem’, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1.
Green plants in,
terrestrial ecosystem capture about 1% of energy of the sunlight that falls on
their leaves.
2. Around 10% of organic matter reaches to the
next higher level of consumers.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code:
a) Only 2
b) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Only 1
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Green plants (producers) in terrestrial ecosystems
capture roughly 1% of the incident solar energy that falls on their
leaves through photosynthesis. This energy is converted into chemical energy
(biomass).
Statement 2 is correct: According to the 10% law of energy
transfer proposed by Raymond Lindeman, only about 10% of the energy (or
organic matter) from one trophic level is transferred to the next
higher level. The rest is lost as heat, used in metabolic processes,
or remains unconsumed.
Source: Class X Scient Ncert, Chapter: 15 Our Environment, Page:
259.
https://education.nationalgeographic.org/resource/energy-flow-and-10-percent-rule/5th-grade/
https://bepclots.bihar.gov.in/ptyrdimu/2021/04/Class-12-Biology-NCERT-Chapter-14.pdf
(https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?jesc1=13-16)
Q.6) Which of the following events took place in the year 1911?
1.
Partition of Bengal
revoked
2.
Transfer of capital
from Calcutta to Delhi
3. Lucknow pact between Congress and Muslim
League
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
a) 1 and 2
b) Only 3
c) 2 and 3
d) Only 1
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Option 1 is correct: Partition of Bengal
revoked – 1911
·
The Partition of
Bengal was carried out by Lord Curzon in 1905, dividing Bengal into two parts —
Eastern Bengal and Assam, and Western Bengal — supposedly for administrative
convenience.
·
However, the move was
seen by Indian nationalists as an attempt to divide Bengal on religious lines
(Hindus and Muslims) and weaken the growing national movement.
·
The decision led to
widespread protests, the Swadeshi Movement (1905–1908), and strong public
resentment.
·
In response to
sustained opposition, King George V announced the revocation of
Bengal’s partition in 1911 during the Delhi Durbar.
Option 2 is correct:Transfer of capital from
Calcutta to Delhi – 1911
During the Delhi Durbar held in December 1911,
attended by King George V and Queen Mary, it was also declared that the capital
of British India would be shifted from Calcutta to Delhi.
Option 3 is incorrect: Lucknow Pact between
Congress and Muslim League – 1916
·
The Lucknow
Pact was concluded in 1916 at the joint session of the Indian National
Congress and the All India Muslim League held in Lucknow.
·
The session was
presided over by C Mazumdar.
·
Under this pact, both
organizations agreed to jointly demand constitutional reforms and to work
together for Indian self-government.
Hence, the correct answer is: (a) 1 and 2
Source: A Brief History of Modern India
(Spectrum) by Rajiv Ahir, Chapter: 12, Era of Militant Nationalism (1905–1909),
Page: 285, Chapter: 12, First World War and Nationalist Response, Page: 317.
https://www.indiatoday.in/india/photo/delhi-turns-366644-2011-11-15
https://indianculture.gov.in/stories/delhi-capital-british-india
http://indianculture.gov.in/node/2816101
http://debracollege.dspaces.org/bitstream/123456789/481/1/Plassey%20to%20Partition%20by%20Sekhar%20Bandopadhyay%20%28z-lib.org%29.pdf (PDF
PAGE NO. 345)
Q.7) Consider the following events and arrange them in correct
chronological order.
1.
Poona Pact
2.
End of Civil
Disobedience Movement
3.
Gandhi-Irwin Pact
4. Second Round Table Conference
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
a) 3, 4, 2, 1
b) 4, 3, 1, 2
c) 4, 3, 2, 1
d) 3, 4, 1, 2
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Correct chronological order of the events:
1. Gandhi–Irwin Pact (March 1931):
This pact was signed between Mahatma Gandhi
and Lord Irwin, leading to the suspension of the Civil Disobedience Movement
and Gandhi’s participation in the Second Round Table Conference.
2. Second Round Table Conference
(September–December 1931):
Gandhi attended this conference in London as
the sole representative of the Indian National Congress, but it ended without
any substantial agreement.
3. Poona Pact (September 1932):
Signed between Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B.R.
Ambedkar, this pact provided for a single Hindu electorate with reserved seats
for the Depressed Classes instead of separate electorates as announced earlier
in the Communal Award.
4. End of Civil Disobedience Movement (April
1934):
After intermittent phases, Gandhi formally
called off the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1934 due to lack of mass
enthusiasm and government repression.
Hence, the correct order is: 3.
Gandhi–Irwin Pact → 4. Second Round Table Conference → 1. Poona Pact → 2. End
of Civil Disobedience Movement
Source:
A Brief History of Modern India (Spectrum) by
Rajiv Ahir, Chapter: 19, Civil Disobedience Movement and Round Table Conferences,
Page: 385
https://indianculture.gov.in/node/2835330
http://debracollege.dspaces.org/bitstream/123456789/481/1/Plassey%20to%20Partition%20by%20Sekhar%20Bandopadhyay%20%28z-lib.org%29.pdf (End
of Civil Disobedience Movement PDF PAGE 421)
Q.8) As per the India State of Forest Report 2023, which of the
following districts in Uttar Pradesh had forest over more than 20% of their
total area?
1.
Bahraich
2.
Chandauli
3. Shravasti
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
a) 1 and 2
b) Only 3
c) 2 and 3
d) Only 1
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
According to the India State of Forest Report
(ISFR) 2023, district-wise forest cover data for Uttar Pradesh shows:
·
Bahraich → Forest
cover: 10.15% of its total geographical area
·
Chandauli
→ Forest cover: 21.63% of its total geographical area
·
Shravasti
→ Forest cover: 20.95% of its total geographical area
Hence, both Chandauli and Shravasti
have forest cover exceeding 20% of their total area.
Therefore, the Correct Answer: (c) 2
and 3
Source: https://fsi.nic.in/uploads/isfr2023/isfr_book_eng-vol-2_2023.pdf
Page: 299.
Q.9) Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched ?
|
(Coal Producing Area) |
(State) |
|
1. Maolong |
Arunachal Pradesh |
|
2. Raniganj |
West Bengal |
|
3. Ramgarh |
Jharkhand |
|
4. Talcher |
Odisha |
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
a) Only 1 and 2
b) Only 2, 3 and 4
c) Only 1, 2 and 3
d) Only 1
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is incorrect: Maolong – Meghalaya (not
Arunachal Pradesh)
The Maolong coalfield is not in Arunachal
Pradesh; it is located in Meghalaya, specifically in the Jaintia Hills region.
Meghalaya is known for its small-scale coal mining areas such as Maolong, Ladrymbai,
and Cherrapunjee.
Pair 2 is correct: Raniganj – West
Bengal
The Raniganj coalfield is located in the
Asansol-Durgapur region of West Bengal. It is the oldest coalfield in India,
where mining began in 1774. It forms part of the Damodar Valley coal belt.
Pair 3 is correct: Ramgarh – Jharkhand
The Ramgarh coalfield lies in the Ramgarh
district of Jharkhand. It is one of the important coal mining areas of the
Damodar Valley region, contributing significantly to Jharkhand’s coal
production.
Pair 4 is correct: Talcher – Odisha
The Talcher coalfield is located in Angul
district of Odisha. It is one of the largest coalfields in India, containing
large reserves of both thermal and metallurgical coal.
Hence, the correct answer is: (b) Only
2, 3 and 4
Source:https://coal.gov.in/sites/default/files/2020-01/allocated161211.pdf
https://www.pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=175390
https://www.nios.ac.in/media/documents/316courseE/ch23.pdf (Pair
2 and 4)
https://www.newsonair.gov.in/4-dead-in-abandoned-coal-mine-collapse-in-jharkhands-ramgarh-district/ (pair
3)
https://mlsu.ac.in/econtents/1895_Distribution%20of%20Coal%20&%20Petroleum%20in%20India.pdf (Pair
1)
Q.10) With reference to Delhi Government’s Bio-decomposer and Spray
Programme’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.
The Bio-decomposer
solution is provided free of cost to farmers to help convert stubble into
manure.
2. The Bio-decomposer solution is prepared using
a mix of several fungi.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
Code:
a) Only 2
b) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Only 1
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The ‘Bio-decomposer and Spray Programme’ is an
initiative of the Delhi Government aimed at tackling the problem of stubble (paddy residue) burning in and around
Delhi by promoting an eco-friendly solution developed by the Indian
Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) — the ‘Pusa Bio-decomposer’.
Statement 1 is correct: Under the Delhi government’s programme, the
Bio-decomposer solution is sprayed free of cost on farmlands to help
farmers manage stubble in-situ without burning it. The Delhi government bears
the entire cost of preparation and spraying, so that farmers face no financial
burden.
Statement 2 is correct: The Pusa Bio-decomposer is a microbial consortium of seven fungal species developed by IARI, New Delhi. These fungi produce enzymes such as cellulase, ligninase, and pectinase, which help break down the tough lignin and cellulose present in paddy straw.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Delhi/bio-decomposer-to-be-sprayed-over-farms-to-prevent-bad-air/article68631422.ece
Q.11) With reference to creation of new All India Service, which of
the following statements is/are correct?
1.
In the national
interest, the Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution for creation of a new All India
Service.
2. The resolution for creation of a new All India
Service must be passed by the Rajya Sabha by two-third majority of the total
members of the house.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
a) Only 2
b) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Only 1
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 312(1) of the
Constitution, if the Rajya Sabha declares by resolution, supported by not less
than two-thirds of the members present and voting, that it is necessary or
expedient in the national interest to create one or more new All India
Services, Parliament may by law create such services.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The resolution in Rajya Sabha does not
require a two-thirds majority of the total membership; it requires
a two-thirds majority of members present and voting.
Source:
FEDERAL STRUCTURE OF INDIAN POLITY,
https://cdnbbsr.s3waas.gov.in/s380537a945c7aaa788ccfcdf1b99b5d8f/uploads/2024/07/20240716890312078.pdf (Article
312)
Q.12) Match List – I with List II and select the correct answer using
the code given below the lists.
|
List – I (Disciple) |
List – II (Guru) |
|
A. Kabir |
1. Guru Nanak Dev |
|
B. Amir Khusrau |
2. Swami Ramananda |
|
C. Surdas |
3. Nizamuddin Auliya |
|
D. Mardana |
4. Vallabhacharya |
Code:
A B C D
a) 3 2 4 1
b) 3 2 1 4
c) 2 3 4 1
d) 2 3 1 4
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
2. Kabir — 2. Swami Ramananda
Kabir was a prominent Bhakti saint of the 15th
century.
He was a disciple of Swami Ramananda,
a Vaishnava saint of the Ramanuja tradition.
Ramananda’s teachings of devotion to one God
influenced Kabir’s philosophy of nirguna bhakti (devotion to the formless God).
3. Amir Khusrau — 3. Nizamuddin Auliya
Amir Khusrau was a great poet, musician, and
scholar of the Delhi Sultanate period.
He was the most beloved disciple of
the Sufi saint Nizamuddin Auliya of the Chishti order.
Khusrau’s poetry and music reflected the
spiritual teachings of his Pir (master) and deep devotion to him.
4. Surdas — 4. Vallabhacharya
Surdas, a 16th-century poet-saint, is best
known for his devotional songs dedicated to Lord Krishna.
He was a disciple of Vallabhacharya, who
founded the Pushti Marg (Path of Grace) sect of Vaishnavism.
Under Vallabhacharya’s guidance, Surdas
composed the famous Sursag
1. Mardana — 1. Guru Nanak Dev
Bhai Mardana was a Muslim musician and a close
disciple and companion of Guru Nanak Dev, the founder of Sikhism.
He accompanied Guru Nanak on his travels
(Udasis) and played the rabab (string instrument) while Guru Nanak sang hymns.
Hence, the correct answer is: (c) 2 3
4 1
Source: Tamil Nadu New SCERT, Class XI, Unit- 13- Cultural
Syncretism: Bhakti Movement in India, Page: 193.
https://indianculture.gov.in/stories/life-sant-kabir-das
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/mumbai/brahmin-bhakt-of-14th-century-sufi-mystic-poet-calls-himself-khusro/articleshow/96490537.cms
Q.13) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Investment in human capital yields
returns in the future.
Reason (R): Education and health make people more productive.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
b) (A) is false, but (R) is true
c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Assertion (A) is true: Human capital refers to the skills, knowledge, and health
possessed by individuals. Investing in education, training, and healthcare
enhances these attributes, leading to better job prospects, higher income, and
economic growth over time.
Reason (R) is true: Educated individuals tend to be more skilled
and efficient, while healthy individuals can work more consistently and
effectively. Together, these factors directly improve productivity.
Link between A and R:
The reason clearly explains the assertion.
Productivity gains from education and health are the returns on
human capital investment.
Therefore, Both (A) and (R) are true
and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?keec1=4-10
https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/SrSec318NEW/318_Economics_Eng/318_Economics_Eng_Lesson3.pdf (page
33)
Q.14) Match List – I with List – II and choose the N correct
answer using the code given below the lists.
|
List – I (Refinery) |
List – II (State) |
|
A. Nayara |
1. Assam |
|
B. Manali |
2. Gujarat |
|
C. Numaligarh |
3. Andhra Pradesh |
|
D. Tatipaka |
4. Tamil Nadu |
Code:
A B C D
a) 4 2 3 1
b) 2 4 1 3
c) 2 4 3 1
d) 4 2 1 3
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
2. Nayara Refinery – 2. Gujarat
4. Manali Refinery – 4. Tamil Nadu
1. Numaligarh Refinery – 1. Assam
·
The Numaligarh
Refinery Limited (NRL), often called the “Assam Accord Refinery”, is
located in Golaghat district, Assam.
·
It was set up to
promote industrial and economic development in the Northeast and has a capacity
of 3 MTPA (being expanded to 9 MTPA).
3. Tatipaka Refinery – 3. Andhra Pradesh
·
Operated by Oil
and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC), the Tatipaka Refinery is
a small refinery located in East Godavari district, Andhra Pradesh.
·
It has a capacity
of 066 MTPA, mainly meeting local petroleum needs.
Hence, the correct answer is: (b) 2 –
4 – 1 – 3
https://www.cpcl.co.in/business/refinery/manali-refinery/
https://www.nayaraenergy.com/vadinar-refinery
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2096817
Q.15) Which of the following is/are NOT a dimension of food security?
1.
Availability
2.
Accessibility
3.
Affordability
4. Accountability
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
a) 1 and 2
b) Only 4
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) Only 1
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The four dimensions of food security
as recognized by global institutions like FAO (Food and Agriculture
Organization) are:
1.
Availability – Sufficient quantities of food available on a
consistent basis
2.
Accessibility – Having adequate resources to obtain
appropriate foods for a nutritious diet
3.
Utilization – Proper biological use of food,
requiring a diet with sufficient energy and nutrients, clean water, sanitation,
and healthcare
4. Stability – Having access to adequate food at all times,
without risk of losing access due to shocks
Affordability is actually considered part of
the “Accessibility” dimension (economic access to food).
Accountability is not a dimension of food
security – it relates to
governance and institutional frameworks.
Hence, “Accountability” is not a dimension
of food security.
Source: https://www.fao.org/4/al936e/al936e00.pdf
https://www.worldbank.org/en/topic/agriculture/brief/food-security-update/what-is-food-security
Q.16) With reference to ‘Silver articles’, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1.
Silver articles turn
black after some time when exposed to air.
2. It happens due to the coating of silver
sulphide.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
a) Only 2
b) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Only 1
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Silver articles do
turn black over time when exposed to air. This is a common observation due to a chemical
reaction with atmospheric substances.
Statement 2 is correct: The black coating forms because
silver reacts with hydrogen sulphide (H₂S) present in the air, forming silver
sulphide (Ag₂S). This compound is
black in color and causes the tarnishing of silver.
This process is known as silver
tarnishing, and it’s a classic example of a chemical reaction between a
metal and atmospheric gases.
Source: https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/22426/1/Unit-14.pdf
https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/SrSec313NEW/313labmanualnew.pdf
Q.17) Match List – 1 with List – II and select the correct answer
using the code given below the lists:
|
List – I (Mission) |
List – II (Date of Launch) |
|
A. Chandrayaan – 3 |
1. 02 September
2023. |
|
B. Aditya L1 |
2. 17 February 2024 |
|
C. INSAT-3DS |
3. 14 July 2023 |
|
D. RLV-LEX-01 |
4. 02 April 2023 |
Code:
A B C D
a) 1 3 4 2
b) 3 1 2 4
c) 3 1 4 2
d) 1 3 2 4
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
1. Chandrayaan-3 → 14 July 2023
·
Launch
Vehicle: LVM3-M4
·
Launched
From: Satish Dhawan Space
Centre, Sriharikota
·
Objective: To
demonstrate soft landing capability on the lunar surface and rover mobility.
1. Aditya-L1 → 02 September 2023
·
Launch
Vehicle: PSLV-C57
·
Launched
From: Satish Dhawan
Space Centre
·
Objective: India’s first solar mission —
to study the Sun’s corona, chromosphere, and solar wind from
the Lagrange Point L1, about 1.5 million km from Earth.
1. INSAT-3DS → 17 February 2024
·
Launch
Vehicle: GSLV F14
·
Launched
From: Sriharikota
·
Objective: To provide advanced
meteorological observations, data relay, and search and
rescue services.
1. RLV-LEX-01 (Reusable Launch Vehicle – Landing
Experiment) → 02 April 2023
·
Location: Aeronautical Test Range, Chitradurga, Karnataka
·
Objective: To demonstrate the autonomous
landing capability of a reusable space vehicle, a key step toward
building cost-effective, reusable space launch systems.
Hence, the correct answer is: (b) 3 1 2 4
Source:https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1945483
https://www.isro.gov.in/GSLV-F14_INSAT-3DS_mission.html
https://www.isro.gov.in/Reusable_launch_vehicle_autonomous_landing_mission.html?timeline=timeline
https://www.isro.gov.in/INSAT-3DS_imaging_Earth.html
https://www.isro.gov.in/Reusable_launch_vehicle_autonomous_landing_mission.html?timeline=timeline
Q.18) Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct
answer using the code given below the lists.
|
List – I (State) |
List – II (Number of seats in Rajya Sabha) |
|
A. Maharashtra |
1. 16 |
|
B. Karnataka |
2. 18 |
|
C. Bihar |
3. 19 |
|
D. Tamil Nadu |
4. 12 |
Code:
A B C D
a) 2 1 3 4
b) 2 4 3 1
c) 1 2 4 3
d) 3 4 1 2
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
·
233 are elected by the
Legislative Assemblies of states and UTs using proportional representation by
single transferable vote, and
·
12 are nominated by
the President for their contributions to art, literature, science, and social
service.
The allocation of seats to each state is based
on its population, ensuring proportional representation — larger states like
Uttar Pradesh (31 seats) have more members, while smaller states like Sikkim (1
seat) have fewer.
1. Maharashtra – 19 seats
Maharashtra, being one of India’s most
populous and industrially advanced states, has 19 representatives in
the Rajya Sabha.
2. Bihar – 16 seats
Bihar, a densely populated state in eastern
India, has 16 members in the Rajya Sabha.
Hence, the Correct code is: (d) 3
4 1 2
Source: https://cdnbbsr.s3waas.gov.in/s380537a945c7aaa788ccfcdf1b99b5d8f/uploads/2024/07/20240716890312078.pdf (Fourth
Schedule page no. 273-274)
https://www.eci.gov.in/term-of-the-houses
Q.19) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Poverty line differs across time and
countries.
Reason (R): The basic needs of people vary across regions and overtime.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) iş not
the correct explanation of (A)
b) (A) is false, but (R) is true
c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Assertion (A) is true: The poverty line is not a fixed universal
standard. It varies depending on the economic conditions, cost of living, and
societal norms of different countries and changes over time due to inflation,
development, and policy shifts.
Reason (R) is true: What constitutes “basic needs” (food, shelter,
clothing, education, healthcare) is context-dependent. For example, access to
internet or sanitation may be considered essential in one region but not in
another.
Link between A and R:
The variation in basic needs directly
influences how poverty is defined and measured. Hence, R correctly
explains A.
Therefore, the correct answer is: d)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?iess2=3-4
(NCERT CLASS IX ECONOMICS: Chapter 3 Poverty
as a Challenge)
Q.20) With reference to Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar announced
in June 2025, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.
Yuva Puraskar was
announced in 23 Indian languages. 2
2. There is no Yuva Puraskar in Dogri this year.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
a) Only 2
b) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Only 1
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: The Sahitya Akademi announced the Yuva
Puraskar 2025 for 23 Indian languages. The award honours young writers
under the age of 35 for their outstanding literary contributions. Each award
carries a cash prize of ₹50,000 and a copper plaque. Hence, this statement is
correct.
Statement 2 is correct: In 2025, the Sahitya
Akademi did not confer the Yuva Puraskar in the Dogri language category, as mentioned in the official award list
released by the Akademi.
Source:
https://sahitya-akademi.gov.in/pdf/Pressrelease_YP-2025.pdf
Q.21) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): In the Himalayan mountains different
types of vegetation are found.
Reason (R): In the Himalayas, there are variations in climate with
change in altitude.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
b) (A) is false, but (R) is true
c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Assertion (A) is true: The Himalayas show a great diversity of
vegetation types ranging from tropical forests at the foothills, temperate
forests at middle altitudes, coniferous forests at higher altitudes, and alpine
grasslands and tundra near the snow line. Thus, vegetation changes distinctly as
we move upward through the mountain slopes.
Reason (R) is true: In the Himalayas, temperature decreases and
precipitation patterns change with altitude. For example, lower altitudes
experience a warm and humid tropical climate, while higher altitudes have cold
and dry conditions. These variations in temperature, rainfall, and soil types
result in distinct climatic zones.
Link between A and R:
The difference in vegetation at
various heights is a direct outcome of climatic variations with
altitude. As altitude increases, the climate becomes cooler and
less hospitable, causing a gradual shift in plant types suited to those
conditions.
Therefore, both Assertion (A) and
Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) correctly explains Assertion
(A).
Hence, the correct answer is (d).
Source:
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kegy105.pdf
Page: 45.
Q.22) With reference to ‘Carrying Capacity of Environment’,
which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.
The rate of resource
extraction should remain above the rate of resource generation.
2. Generation of waste should remain within the
absorption capacity of the environment.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
a) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
b) Neither 1 nor 2
d) Only 1
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: For environmental sustainability, the
rate of resource extraction must remain below the rate of resource regeneration (for
renewable resources like forests, groundwater, etc.).
If extraction exceeds regeneration, resources
deplete and become unsustainable.
Statement 2 is correct: The environment can naturally absorb and
neutralize a certain amount of waste through processes like decomposition,
dilution, and recycling.
If waste generation exceeds this
capacity, pollution and environmental degradation occur.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/keec107.pdf
Q.23) Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched
?
|
(Tribe) |
(Habitat) |
|
1. Bushman |
Kalahari Desert |
|
2. Eskimo |
Northern Canada |
|
3. Pygmy |
Congo Basin |
|
4. Masai |
West Africa |
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
a) Only 1, 2 and 3
b) Only 4
c) Only 3 and 4
d) Only 1
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is correct: Bushman — Kalahari Desert
The Bushmen, also known as the San people, are
one of the oldest tribal groups in the world. They inhabit the Kalahari Desert
region, which extends across Botswana, Namibia, and South Africa. They are
known for their hunting and gathering lifestyle and deep knowledge of desert
ecology.
Pair 2 is correct: Eskimo — Northern Canada
The Eskimos, more accurately called the Inuit,
live in the Arctic regions of Northern Canada, Alaska, and Greenland. They have
adapted to extremely cold climates and traditionally live by hunting seals,
whales, and fish.
Pair 3 is correct: Pygmy — Congo Basin
The Pygmies are indigenous forest-dwelling
people who live in the Congo Basin of Central Africa, mainly in countries like
the Democratic Republic of Congo, Cameroon, and the Central African Republic.
They are known for their short stature and deep dependence on the forest
ecosystem.
Pair 4 is incorrect: Masai — East Africa (not
West Africa)
The Masai tribe actually inhabits East
Africa, not West Africa. They are found mainly in Kenya and northern
Tanzania. The Masai are semi-nomadic pastoralists, famous for their cattle
herding, traditional red attire (shuka), and distinctive customs.
Source: https://www.survivalinternational.org/tribes/bushmen
https://www.worldatlas.com/articles/who-are-the-eskimo-people-where-do-they-live.html
https://www.fao.org/4/w1033e/w1033e03.htm
https://www.masaimara.travel/maasai-tribe-facts.php
https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/Kalahari-bushmens-legal-victory/article15539838.ece
https://gacbe.ac.in/pdf/ematerial/18BGE43C-U2.pdf
https://www.siyabona.com/maasai-tribe-east-africa.html
Q.24) Which of the following pairs of Part of Indian
Constitution and its subject is/are NOT correctly matched?
1.
Part IV A –
Fundamental Duties
2.
Part VI – The States
3. Part XI – The Municipalities
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
a) 1 and 2
b) Only 3
c) 2 and 3
d) Only 1
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is correct: Part IV-A – Fundamental
Duties
·
Introduced
by: 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
·
Articles
Covered: Article 51A.
·
Content:
Lists 11 Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens, inspired by the Constitution of the former
USSR.
·
Purpose: To remind citizens of their moral obligations
to help promote the spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity of India.
Pair 2 is correct:Part VI – The States
·
Articles
Covered: Articles 152 to 237.
·
Content:
Deals with the
governance structure of the States, including the Governor, State Legislature,
High Courts, and State Public Service Commission.
·
Purpose: Provides a framework for the working of the
State Governments within the federal structure of India.
Pair 3 is incorrect: Part XI – Relation
between Union and States
·
Articles
Covered: Articles 245 to 263.
·
Content:
Actually deals with the Relations between the Union and the States — legislative, administrative, and executive
relations.
·
Municipalities
are not covered here; they are covered under Part IX-A (Articles 243P to
243ZG), which was added by the
74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.
Hence, this pair is not correctly
matched.
Source:
https://cdnbbsr.s3waas.gov.in/s380537a945c7aaa788ccfcdf1b99b5d8f/uploads/2024/07/20240716890312078.pdf
Q.25) Consider the following revolts and arrange them in correct
chronological order.
1.
Pabna
2.
Indigo
3.
Kuka
4. Sanyasi
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
a) 4, 3, 2, 1
b) 3, 4, 1, 2
c) 3, 4, 2, 1
d) 4, 2, 3, 1
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
1. Sanyasi Rebellion (c. 1763–1800):
·
Region:
Bengal.
·
Nature: Revolt by Hindu Sanyasis and Muslim Fakirs
against the East India Company’s oppressive taxation and restrictions on
pilgrimage after the Battle of Buxar (1764).
·
Significance: Considered one of the earliest resistance
movements against British colonial rule.
2. Kuka (Namdhari) Movement (1872):
·
Region:
·
Leader: Bhagat Jawahar Mal and Baba
Ram Singh.
3. Indigo Revolt (1859–1860):
·
Region: Bengal (especially Nadia district).
4. Pabna Revolt (1873–1876):
·
Region: Pabna district, Bengal (now
in Bangladesh).
·
Cause: Agrarian unrest due to high rents,
illegal cesses, and eviction threats by zamindars.
·
Nature: Non-violent and organized movement, forming
peasant unions and demanding tenant rights.
·
Outcome: Influenced the Bengal Tenancy
Act, 1885, which improved tenant protections.
Hence, the Correct Chronological Order
is: Sanyasi (1763–1800) → Indigo (1859–60) →Kuka (1872) →Pabna (1873–76)
Therefore, the Correct Answer is: (d)
4, 2, 3, 1
Source: A Brief History of Modern India (Spectrum) by Rajiv
Ahir, Chapter: 6, People’s Resistance Against British Before 1857, Page: 137
and Chapter: 31, Peasant Movements 1857–1947 , Page: 611
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/hess203.pdf
http://indianculture.gov.in/museum-paintings/sanyasi-rebellion-1763-1800
https://www.govtgirlsekbalpur.com/Study_Materials/History/PAPER1_DSE-A1_SEM-5_MOD6_Note-3.pdf
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-history/what-is-the-history-of-the-kuka-martyrs-day-9784916/
Q.26) Consider the following wars and arrange them in correct
chronological order.
1.
First Anglo-Mysore War
2.
Second Anglo-French
War
3.
First Anglo-Sikh War
4. First Anglo-Afghan War
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code:
(a) 2, 1, 4, 3
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 2, 4, 3
(d) 2, 1, 3, 4
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Option 2: The Anglo- French rivalry in India took the
form of three Carnatic Wars.The Second Anglo-French War or the Second
Carnatic War was fought from 1749 to 1754. It was the outcome of the
diplomatic efforts of Dupleix, the French Governor-General in India. It came to
an end with the Treaty of Pondicherry.
Option 1: The First Anglo-Mysore War began in
1767. The War was fought
from 1767 to 1769. It was fought between the ruler of Mysore Hyder Ali and the
British East India Company. The War concluded with the Treaty of Madras that
was signed between Haidar Ali and the British on April 4, 1769.
Option 4: The First Anglo-Afghan War was
fought from 1839-1842. It
was fought between the British East India Company (EIC) and the Emirate of
Afghanistan. The campaign ended with Britain withdrawing from Afghanistan.
Option 3: The First Anglo-Sikh war was fought between
the Sikhs and the British from 1845 to 1846. The First Anglo Sikh War
began with the Battle of Mudki on December 18, 1845. The conflict
ended with the British taking partial control of the Sikh territories. The War
forced the Sikhs to sign a humiliating Treaty of Lahore on March 8, 1846.
So, the correct sequence is 2-1-4-3.
Source:
A Brief History of Modern India by Rajiv Ahir
Spectrum Publication – Page 45, 96, 116, 130
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?hess2=2-10
https://www.thehindu.com/features/kids/When-Multan-fell/article14012149.ece
http://debracollege.dspaces.org/bitstream/123456789/481/1/Plassey%20to%20Partition%20by%20Sekhar%20Bandopadhyay%20%28z-lib.org%29.pdf
Q.27) The Gobi Desert is spread across which of the following
countries ?
1.
Mongolia
2.
China
3.
Russia
4. Kazakhstan
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code :
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 1, 2 and 4
(c) Only 1, 2 and 3
(d) Only 1
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The Gobi Desert spans across China and
Mongolia. It is Asia’s largest desert and is spread over nearly
1,300,000 square kilometres. The desert is spread over Northern China
and Southern Mongolia.
Source:
World Atlas
Certificate Physical and Human Geography by GC
Leong- Page 134
https://geographical.co.uk/science-environment/geo-explainer-the-gobi-desert
Q.28) Which of the following two are the major constituents of
Bio-gas ?
1.
Methane
2.
Butane
3.
Carbon dioxide
4. Carbon monoxide
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Biogas is a mixture of gases (containing
predominantly methane) produced by microbial activity. It is a renewable and
sustainable form of energy derived from the anaerobic decomposition of organic
matter. Biogas is a mixture primarily composed of methane (CH₄) and carbon dioxide (CO₂). The main components of biogas are methane (about 50-70%) and carbon
dioxide (30-40%). Other minor components include hydrogen sulfide (H₂S), water vapor, and trace amounts of other
gases.
Bio-gas is produced through a bio-chemical
process in which certain types of bacteria convert the biological wastes into
useful bio-gas.
Source:
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/lebo108.pdf
https://energy.vikaspedia.in/viewcontent/energy/energy-production/bio-energy/biogas?lgn=en
https://biogas.mnre.gov.in/public/faqs
Q.29) ‘Adi Karmyogi Beta Version – A Responsive Governance
Initiative’ was launched by which of the following ministries in June 2025 ?
1.
Ministry of AYUSH
2.
Ministry of Women and
Child Development
3.
Ministry of Social
Justice and Empowerment
4. Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Select the correct answer from the code
given below:
Code:
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 4.
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) Only 1
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
“Adi Karmyogi Beta Version – A Responsive
Governance Initiative” was launched by the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs in
June 2025.
It was launched at a two-day conference of the
Ministry. The Ministry of Tribal Affairs successfully organized a two-day
National Conference titled “Adi Anveshan” on 26th and 27th June 2025, at
Vanijya Bhawan, New Delhi.
Adi Karmyogi Beta Version is a flagship programme of the Ministry
of Tribal Affairs. Adi Karmyogi Beta Version is aimed at building a cadre of
highly motivated officers and change makers dedicated to grassroots
transformation. The programme seeks to bring a fundamental shift in the
attitude and motivation of field-level officials, emphasizing citizen-centric
ideation and delivery. Adi Karmyogi Beta version will enable capacity building
of nearly 20 lakh stakeholders through a robust framework of more than 180
State Master Trainers, 3,000 District Trainers, and 15,000 Block Trainers.
Adi Karmyogi Beta version marks a
strategic move toward creating a governance ecosystem that listens, responds,
and uplifts.
Source:
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2140309
Q.30) Arrange the following conquests of Alauddin Khalji in
correct chronological order and select the correct answer from the code given
below.
1.
Ranthambore
2.
Jaisalmer
3.
Warangal
4. Chittor
Code:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 2, 1, 4, 3
(c) 2, 1, 3, 4
(d) 1, 2, 4, 3
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Alauddin Khalji was the second ruler of the
Khalji Dynasty of Delhi Sultanate. He ruled from 1296 to 1316.
Alauddin’s campaigns into Devagiri (1296,
1307, 1314), Gujarat (1299–1300), Ranthambhor (1301), Chittor
(1303) and Malwa (1305) were meant to proclaim his political and
military power as well as to collect loot from the defeated kingdoms.
Option 2: Jaisalmer Fort was captured by
Alauddin Khalji in 1299 CE.
Option 1: In 1301, Alauddin marched against
Ranthambore and after a three
month’s siege it fell.
Option 4: After Ranthambore, Alauddin turned towards
Chittor. It was the powerful state in Rajasthan. The siege lasted for several
months. In 1303 Alauddin stormed the Chittor fort.
Option 3: Prataparudradeva, the Kakatiya ruler
of Warangal in the Telangana region, was defeated by Alauddin’s forces under
Malik Kafur in 1309.
So, the correct order of conquests of Alauddin
Khalji is Jaisalmer – Ranthambore-Chittor- Warangal i.e. 2-1-4-3
Source:
Tamil Nadu New SCERT Class 11th History: Page
143
Tamil Nadu Old SCERT Class 11th History: Page 180,
181
Satish Chandra Old NCERT Chapter 7
https://magadhmahilacollege.org/wp-content/uploads/2020/09/Expeditions-of-Allauddin-Khilji.pdf
https://www.jaisalmerfort.in/Rani.html
The khilji (khalji) dynasty (1290 – 1320)
Q.31) With reference to hydroelectricity in North India, which
of the following statements is/are correct?
1.
There are huge
possibilities of hydroelectricity in the Himalayan region.
2. Eastern Uttar Pradesh and Bihar cannot utilise
this potential because the Himalayas situated to their North lies in boundary
of Nepal.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code:
(a) Only 2
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Only 1
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. There are huge possibilities of hydroelectricity
in the Himalayan region. With its abundant water bodies and ideal
topography to utilize the resource for electricity generation, the Himalayan
region is regarded as the powerhouse of India. The Government
estimates show that the Himalayas, with an installed capacity of 46,850 MW,
have a potential to generate 115,550 MW.
To tap this potential, hydropower projects are
mushrooming in the Himalayan arc—till November 2022, the 10 states and two
Union territories in the region, barring West Bengal, had 81 large hydropower
projects (above 25 MW) and 26 projects under construction, and another 320
large projects in the pipeline, according to the Central Electricity Authority
under the Union Ministry of Power.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is an extreme
statement to say that Eastern Uttar
Pradesh and Bihar cannot utilise this potential because the
Himalayas situated to their North lie in the boundary of Nepal because the
rivers flow from that region of Himalayas into the eastern part of Uttar
Pradesh and Bihar and there are several hydroelectric power projects on these
rivers.
Source:
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1909276
Q.32) Which of the following districts is/are part of the
Devipatan Division in Uttar Pradesh ?
1.
Basti
2.
Bahraich
3. Balrampur
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 3
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) Only 1
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Devipatan Mandal is situated between 81.30
degree to 32.40 degree longitude and 26.48 degree north latitude in the north
direction in the state’s Purvanchal. The northern boundary of the division is
adjacent to Nepal. In the west of the division, Lakhimpur and Sitapur, in the
south, Faizabad and Barabanki and in the east, Basti and Siddharth Nagar
districts are located. The entire area of Devipatan division is known as
Terai region.
Option 1 is incorrect. Basti district is a part of Basti Division.
Options 2 and 3 are correct. Devipatan
Mandal of Uttar Pradesh is
located in the eastern part of the state. This mandal is made up of four
districts: Gonda, Bahraich, Balrampur and Shravasti.
Source:https://devipatanmandal.nic.in/about-department/introduction/
https://basti.nic.in/about-district/
Q.33) Consider the formation of the following States of India
and arrange them in correct chronological order starting from the earliest to
the last.
1.
Punjab
2.
Arunachal Pradesh
3.
Nagaland
4. Sikkim
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) 3, 2, 4, 1
(b) 3, 4, 1, 2
(c) 3, 1, 4, 2
(d) 2, 3, 4, 1
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Option 3: Nagaland became a State in
1963. In 1963, the State of Nagaland
was formed by taking the Naga Hills and Tuensang area out of the state of
Assam. This was done to satisfy the movement of the hostile Nagas. However,
before giving Nagaland the status of the 16th state of the Indian Union, it was
placed under the control of the Governor of Assam in 1961.
Option 1: The Constitution of India, that came into
force in 1950, contained a four-fold classification of the States and
territories of the Indian Union – Part A, Part B and Part C and Part D. Punjab
was one of the Part A states. Later, the States Reorganisation Act of 1956
merged the Patiala and East Punjab States Union (Pepsu) into that of Punjab
State. In 1966, on the recommendation of the Shah Commission, the
Punjabi-speaking areas were constituted into the unilingual state of Punjab,
the Hindi-speaking areas were constituted into the State of Haryana and the
hill areas were merged with the adjoining union territory of Himachal Pradesh.
Option 4: Sikkim became a full-fledged State of the Indian
Union in 1975. Till 1947, Sikkim was an Indian princely state
ruled by Chogyal. In 1947, after the lapse of British paramountcy, Sikkim
became a ‘protectorate’ of India. Later, the 35th Constitutional Amendment Act
(1974) made Sikkim an ‘associate state’ of the Indian Union. Consequently, the
36th Constitutional Amendment Act (1975) was enacted to make Sikkim a
full-fledged State of the Indian Union (the 22nd state).
Option 2: In 1987, Arunachal Pradesh became
the 24th State of the Indian Union.
Earlier, it was made a Union Territory in 1972.
So, the correct chronological order of the
formation of the given States from earliest to latest is:
Nagaland – Punjab – Sikkim – Arunachal
Pradesh.
Source:
Indian Polity by M.Laxmikant Sixth Edition
Chapter 5
Q.34) With reference to ‘Uttar Pradesh’, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1.
Uttar Pradesh is the
leading producer of potato in the country.
2. Government of India has approved for
establishment of South Asia Regional Centre of International Potato Centre at
Aligarh.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) Only 2
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Only 1
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. Uttar Pradesh is the
leader of potato production in India, with a staggering output of 15.89 million tonnes. The
State’s fertile plains and conducive climate serve as the perfect canvas for
potato farming. The districts of Agra, Farrukhabad, and Meerut are particularly
renowned for their high yields, making UP a central pillar in India’s potato
supply.
West Bengal comes second and Bihar comes
third.
India is the second largest producer of potato
in the world, after China.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Union Cabinet has approved a proposal to
establish the International Potato Centre (CIP)’s South Asia Regional Centre
(CSARC) at Agra, Uttar Pradesh. International Potato Centre
(CIP) ‘s South Asia Regional Centre is being established at Singna, Agra, Uttar
Pradesh.
Source:
https://nhb.gov.in/statistics/Reports/Potato-for-October-2019.pdf
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2139496
https://sansad.in/getFile/annex/268/AU1455_2tTbJU.pdf?source=pqars
Q.35) Arrange the following States of India in the ascending
order on the basis of their area and select the correct answer from the code
given below.
1.
Haryana
2.
Himachal Pradesh
3.
Punjab
4. Uttarakhand
Code:
(a) 1, 3, 2, 4
(b) 3, 1, 4, 2
(c) 3, 1, 2, 4
(d) 1, 3, 4, 2
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
There are 28 states and 8 Union territories in
the country. India covers an area of 32,87,263 sq. km.
Option 1: Haryana has an area of 44,212 sq. km.
Option 3: Punjab has a total area of 50,362 sq km.
Option 4: Uttarakhand has a total area of 53,
483 sq. km
Option 2: Himachal Pradesh has an area of 55,673 sq km.
So, the ascending order of given States on the
basis of their area is: Haryana < Punjab < Uttarakhand <
Himachal Pradesh.
Source: https://fsi.nic.in/uploads/isfr2023/isfr_book_eng-vol-1_2023.pdf (page
no. 8)
https://himachal.gov.in/en-IN/
https://sbb.uk.gov.in/about-department/about-uttarakhand/
Q.36) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Generally an alloy of lead and tin is
used as a material of the fuse wire.
Reason (R): Alloy of lead and tin has a higher melting point than
copper and aluminium.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Electric fuse is an important component of all
domestic circuits. A fuse in a circuit prevents damage to the appliances and
the circuit due to overloading. It protects circuits and appliances by stopping
the flow of any unduly high electric current.
The assertion is correct. Fuse wire consists of a piece of wire made of
a metal or an alloy of appropriate melting point. A piece of wire made
of lead and tin alloy is used in making a fuse. It has its melting
point lower and higher resistance than that of electrical wire. Due to this, if
current in a circuit increases above a particular point the fuse wire gets
heated and burns out.
The reason is incorrect. The alloy of lead and
tin has a lower melting point than copper and aluminium.
Melting point of copper: 1084 °C / 1983 °F
Melting point of Aluminum: 660.37°C/1220.66°F
Melting point of lead and tin alloy: about 183
°C/361 °F
A fuse wire is made of an alloy which has a
low melting point. The fuse is placed in series with the device. If a current
larger than the specified value flows through the circuit, the temperature of
the fuse wire increases. This melts the fuse wire and breaks the circuit.
Source:
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?jesc1=11-16
https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/secscicour/English/Chapter-17.pdf
Q.37) Match List – I with List – II and select the correct
answer from the code given below the lists.
|
List – I (State) |
List – II (Highest Peak) |
|
A. Tamil Nadu |
1. Dhupgarh |
|
B. Rajasthan |
2. Doddabetta |
|
C. Nagaland |
3. Guru Shikhar |
|
D. Madhya Pradesh |
4. Saramati |
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 2 3 4 1
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Pair A:2. Doddabetta (2,623 mts) is the
highest mountain peak in Tamilnadu. It is in the Nilgiri hills.
Pair B:3. Guru Shikhar ((1722 mts) is the
highest peak of the entire Aravali
Range in Rajasthan.
Pair C:4. The highest peak of Nagaland is
Mount Saramati, which stands at 3,840
meters.
Pair D:1. Dhoopgarh (at 1,352 meters above sea
level) is the highest peak of Madhya Pradesh.
Source:
Indian Physical Geography NCERT Class 11th
https://www.nios.ac.in/media/documents/316courseE/ch16.pdf
https://nilgiris.nic.in/tourist-place/doddabetta-ooty/
https://kiphire.nic.in/adventure-tourism/
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?kegy1=2-7
https://www.tourism.rajasthan.gov.in/travel-diaries/nishansthan.html
https://forest.mponline.gov.in/eBrochure/eBrochureDetails.aspx?parkid=PCMR
https://kiphire.nic.in/tourist-place/mount-saramati/
Q.38) Operation Brahma was launched by India in March 2025 to
provide humanitarian aid to which of the following countries ?
1.
Bangladesh
2.
Myanmar
3.
Sri Lanka
4. Malaysia
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code:
(a) Only 2
(b) Only 2 and 4
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) Only 1
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
India launched Operation Brahma to
provide necessary support, humanitarian aid, disaster relief and medical
assistance in Myanmar. Being the First Responder in times of crisis in the
Neighbourhood, Operation Brahma is a whole-of-government endeavour by India to
respond to widespread destruction in Myanmar. It followed the devastating
earthquake that struck Myanmar on 28th March 2025.
Source:
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2116801
Q.39) With reference to Municipalities, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1.
The eligible age to be
a member of a municipality is 25 years.
2. One-third of the total number of seats to be
filled by direct election in the municipalities is reserved for women.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Only 1
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The Constitution (Seventy Forth Amendment)
Act, 1992 has introduced a new Part IXA in the Constitution, which deals with
Municipalities in an article 243 P to 243 ZG.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The minimum age to
be qualified as a member of Municipality is 21 years.
Article 243V says that “no person shall be
disqualified on the ground that he is less than twenty-five years of age, if he
has attained the age of twenty-one years”.
Statement 2 is correct. The Act provides for
the reservation of not less than one-third of the total number of seats for
women. For women, the
seats shall be reserved to the extent of not less than one-third of the total
number of seats. This includes seats reserved for women belonging to SC/ST.
These reservations will apply for direct elections only.
Source: https://cdnbbsr.s3waas.gov.in/s380537a945c7aaa788ccfcdf1b99b5d8f/uploads/2024/07/20240716890312078.pdf (page
no. 130 and 131)
Indian Polity by M.Laxmikant Sixth Edition
Chapter 39
https://secforuts.mha.gov.in/74th-amendment-and-municipalities-in-india/
Q.40) Match List – I with List – II and select the correct
answer using the code given below the lists.
|
List – I (Governor General/Viceroy) |
List – II (Important contribution/work) |
|
A. Lord Dalhousie |
1. Permanent settlement of Bengal |
|
B. Lord Curzon |
2. Prohibition of Practice of Sati |
|
C. Lord William Bentinck |
3. Partition of Bengal |
|
D. Lord Cornwallis |
4. Doctrine of Lapse |
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 3 2 1
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Pair A:4. The Doctrine of Lapse was introduced
by Lord Dalhousie. Lord
Dalhousie was the Governor-General from 1848 to 1856.
Pair B:3.The Governor-General who partitioned
Bengal was Lord Curzon. The partition of Bengal was announced by Lord Curzon. He was the
Viceroy of India from 1899 to 1905. The partition of the Bengal province came
into effect during his viceroyalty on 16th October 1905.
Pair C:2. On 4 December 1829, Lord William
Bentinck issued Regulation XVII declaring Sati to be illegal and punishable in criminal courts. Lord
William Bentinck was the Governor- General from 1828 to 1835.
Pair D:1. Permanent Settlement was introduced
in 1793. Lord Cornwallis was the Governor-General of Bengal when the Permanent Settlement was introduced.
Lord Cornwallis was Governor-General from 1786 to 1793.
https://www.bbc.com/news/world-asia-india-65311042
http://indianculture.gov.in/digital-district-repository/district-repository/doctrine-lapse-case-jhansi
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/hess203.pdf
A Brief History of Modern India by Rajiv Ahir
Spectrum Publication – Page 816-819
https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/SrSec315NEW/History_Module3.pdf
Q.41) Consider the following events and arrange them in correct
chronological order.
1.
Cripps Mission
2.
Cabinet Mission
3.
Shimla Conference
4. Wavell Plan
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) 1, 4, 3, 2
(b) 4, 1, 2, 3
(c) 4, 1, 3, 2
(d) 1, 4, 2, 3
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Option 1: Cripps Mission came to India in
March 1942. It was a mission headed
by Stafford Cripps. It was sent to India with constitutional proposals to seek
Indian support in the world war.
Option 4: Wavell Plan was introduced by Lord
Wavell on 14th June 1945. The idea was to reconstruct the Governor-General’s executive
council pending the preparation of a new constitution. For this purpose, a
conference was convened by Lord Wavell at Shimla in June 1945.
Option 3: Shimla Conference was convened by Lord Wavell on 25th
June 1945. It was held for reconstituting the Executive Council in
consultation with Indian leaders. It was held to discuss the Wavell Plan.
Option 2: The Cabinet Mission reached Delhi on
March 24, 1946. It was a
high-powered mission of three British cabinet members (Pethick Lawrence;
Stafford Cripps; and A.V. Alexander) to India to find out ways and means for a
negotiated, peaceful transfer of power to India.
Source: http://indianculture.gov.in/node/2834412
http://debracollege.dspaces.org/bitstream/123456789/481/1/Plassey%20to%20Partition%20by%20Sekhar%20Bandopadhyay%20%28z-lib.org%29.pdf
A Brief History of Modern India by Rajiv Ahir Spectrum
Publication – Page 442, 455. 470
Q.42) With reference to the Public Accounts Committee, which of
the following statements is/are correct?
1.
The Public Accounts
Committee submits its report to the Lok Sabha.
2. The Public Accounts Committee consists of 15
members from Rajya Sabha.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code :
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Only 1
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. The Public Accounts
Committee submits its report to the speaker of the Lok Sabha. It is a Parliamentary Committee.
Parliamentary Committee means a committee which is appointed or elected by the
House or nominated by the Speaker and which works under the direction of the
Speaker and presents its report to the House or to the Speaker and
the Secretariat for which is provided by the Lok Sabha Secretariat.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Public Accounts Committee consists of 22
members (15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha). The
members are elected by the Parliament every year from amongst its members
according to the principle of proportional representation by means of the
single transferable vote.
Source:
Indian Polity by M.Laxmikant Sixth Edition
Chapter 23
https://sansad.in/ls/committee/introduction
https://sansad.in/getFile/LSSCOMMITTEE/Public%20Accounts/Introduction/Introduction_of_PAC_Home_Page_2022-2023.pdf?source=loksabhadocs
Q.43) Which of the following gases is/are lighter than air?
1.
Hydrogen chloride
2.
Sulfur dioxide
3. Helium
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 1
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Option 1 is incorrect. At room temperature,
hydrogen chloride is heavier than air.
Option 2 is incorrect. Sulfur dioxide is
heavier than air.
Option 3 is correct. Helium is quite lighter
than air. It is the
second-lightest element in nature.
Source:
https://sathee.iitk.ac.in/article/chemistry/chemistry-helium/
Q.44) With reference to ‘Atal Tunnel’ which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1.
This tunnel is the
world’s longest highway tunnel.
2. This tunnel is built in the Pir Panjal range
of Himalayas.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code:
(a) Only 2
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Only 1
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Atal Tunnel is a
9.02 km-long tunnel. It is the longest in the world over an altitude of 10,000
feet. Atal Tunnel is the longest highway tunnel in the
World. Atal Tunnel has officially been certified by the World
Book of Records, as the ‘World’s Longest Highway Tunnel above 10,000 Feet.’ It
has cut down the road distance between Manali and Leh by 46 km, and reduced the
travel time by around five hours.
The tunnel was inaugurated by Prime Minister
Narendra Modi on October 3, 2020.
The world’s longest road tunnel in general is
Connecting the towns of Lærdal and Aurland in Norway, which is a 24.5-kilometre
tunnel.
Statement 2 is correct. The Atal Tunnel has been built under
the Rohtang Pass in the eastern Pir Panjal Range of the Himalayas. It
was constructed on the Manali – Leh
Highway in the state of Himachal Pradesh.
Source:
https://static.pib.gov.in/WriteReadData/specificdocs/documents/2022/mar/doc202232428801.pdf
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1796961
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/travel/travel-news/indias-atal-tunnel-is-now-the-worlds-longest-highway-tunnel-above-10000-ft/articleshow/89506635.cms
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/etimes/trending/top-5-longest-road-tunnels-in-the-world/photostory/121006259.cms?picid=121006295
https://marvels.bro.gov.in/AtalTunnel
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1796961
Q.45) With reference to ‘ozone layer’, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1.
Ozone layer shields
the surface of the earth from the ultra-violet radiations from the sun.
2. Ozone depletion has been linked to the
chlorofluorocarbons.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code:
(a) Only 2
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Only 1
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. In the stratosphere, ozone molecules
play an important role by absorbing ultraviolet radiation from the Sun and
shielding Earth. Ozone layer depletion will allow more UV rays to enter the
troposphere and will cause a series of harmful effects.
Statement 2 is correct. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are used as refrigerants,
and various kinds of sprays or sols (e.g. perfumes, air freshener, etc.). CFCs
cause ozone holes in the ozone layer. Ozone holes refer to depletion
of ozone molecules in the ozone layer due to the reaction of CFCs.
When chlorine and bromine atoms come into
contact with ozone in the stratosphere, they destroy ozone molecules. One
chlorine atom can destroy over 100,000 ozone molecules before it is removed
from the stratosphere. Some compounds release chlorine or bromine when they are
exposed to intense UV light in the stratosphere. These compounds
contribute to ozone depletion, and are called ozone-depleting substances (ODS).
ODS that release chlorine include chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs),
hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs), carbon tetrachloride, and methyl chloroform.
ODS that release bromine include halons and methyl bromide.
Source:https://www.nios.ac.in/media/documents/313courseE/L33.pdf
https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/333courseE/LG/eng/EVS_333_E_LG_14.pdf
https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/SrSec313NEW/313_Chemistry_Eng/313_Chemistry_Eng_Lesson32.pdf
https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/SrSec313NEW/313_Chemistry_Eng/313_Chemistry_Eng_Lesson32.pdf
Q.46) Which of the following countries is/are NOT a member of
the Gulf Cooperation Council?
1.
Bahrain
2.
Iran
3.
Iraq
4. Qatar
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4
(c) Only 3
(d) Only 1
Ans) a
Exp) Option is the correct answer.
Gulf Cooperation Council is an economic and
political union comprising all the Arab countries of the Persian Gulf except
Iraq. The GCC was formed in 1981 by an agreement that was concluded in Riyadh,
Saudi Arabia.
The current six members of the GCC are Saudi
Arabia (absolute monarchy), Qatar (constitutional monarchy), Oman (absolute
monarchy), UAE (federal monarchy), Bahrain, and Kuwait (constitutional
monarchies).
Source:
https://www.gcc-sg.org/en/AboutUs/MemberStates/Pages/default.aspx
https://www.mea.gov.in/Portal/ForeignRelation/Gulf_Cooperation_Council_MEA_Website.pdf
Q.47) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Public Interest Litigation in India is
essential for the rule of law.
Reason (R): Public Interest Litigation provides effective access to
Justice to socially and economically weaker sections.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code :
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The assertion is correct. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) has an
important role in facilitating justice. The Supreme Court in the early 1980s
devised a mechanism of Public Interest Litigation or PIL to increase access to
justice. It allowed any individual or organisation to file a PIL in the High
Court or the Supreme Court on behalf of those whose rights were being violated.
The legal process was greatly simplified and even a letter or telegram
addressed to the Supreme Court or the High Court could be treated as a PIL. In
the early years, PIL was used to secure justice on a large number of issues
such as rescuing bonded labourers from inhuman work conditions; and securing
the release of prisoners in Bihar who had been kept in jail even after their
punishment term was complete. Thus, Public Interest Litigation in India is
essential for the rule of law.
The reason is correct. A Public Interest Litigation or PIL is a form
of litigation that is filed in a court to safeguard or enforce public interest.
Under the PIL, any public-spirited citizen or a social organisation can move
the court for the enforcement of the rights of any person or group of persons
who because of their poverty or ignorance or socially or economically
disadvantaged position are themselves unable to approach the court for the
remedies.
Source:
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/hess304.pdf
Indian Polity by M.Laxmikant Sixth Edition
Chapter 29
https://blog.ipleaders.in/philosophical-basis-public-interest-india-concept-scope-locus-standi/
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/17195/1/Unit-3.pdf
Q.48) Which one of the following books is NOT written by Kalidas
?
1.
Meghduta
2.
Raghuvamsam
3. Shringar Shatak
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 1
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Option 1 is incorrect. Meghaduta was written
by Kalidasa.
Option 2 is incorrect. Raghuvamsam (the
dynasty of the Raghus) was also written by Kalidasa.
Option 3 is correct. Shringar Shatak is a collection of Sanskrit verses composed by
the great poet-philosopher Bhartrihari.
Source: https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/secichcour/english/ch.06.pdf
https://archive.org/details/in.ernet.dli.2015.263835
Indian Art and Culture by Nitin Singhania
Chapter 15
Q.49) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Buland Darwaja was constructed at Fatehpur
Sikri by the Mughal emperor Akbar.
Reason (R): Akbar built this monument to commemorate the birth of his
son Jahangir.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Assertion is correct. Buland Darwaza at
Fatehpur Sikri was built by the Mughal emperor, Akbar in 1575. It is a 40 metre red sandstone structure.
Reason is incorrect. Buland Darwaza was built to
commemorate his victory over Gujarat.
Source:
Indian Art and Culture by Nitin Singhania
Chapter 1
https://whc.unesco.org/en/list/255/
https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/secichcour/english/ch.13.pdf
Q.50) Match List – I with List II and choose the correct answer
using the code given below the lists.
|
List – I (Port) |
List – II (State) |
|
A. Paradeep |
1. Tamil Nadu |
|
B. Tuticorin |
2. Kerala |
|
C. Kakinada |
3. Odisha |
|
D. Alappuzha |
4.Andhra Pradesh |
Code:
A B C D
(a) 1 3 2 4
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 1 3 4 2
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Pair A:3 Paradeep Port is one of the Major Ports of
India. It is the only Major Port in the State of Odisha situated
210 nautical miles south of Kolkata and 260 nautical miles north of
Visakhapatnam. It is on the east coast on the shore of Bay of Bengal.
Pair B:1. Tuticorin or V.O.Chidambaranar Port is one of
the 12 major ports in India. It was declared to be a major port on 11 July
1974. It is the second-largest port in Tamil Nadu and
fourth-largest container terminal in India.
Pair C:4. Kakinada Port is an all weather deep
water port. The Kakinada
port is located in Andhra Pradesh.
Pair D:2. The Alappuzha port is located in the
state of Kerala.
Source:
https://www.paradipport.gov.in/
https://indiawris.gov.in/wiki/doku.php?id=kakinada_port_wtp1150
Indian Human Geography NCERT Class12th
https://apcustoms.gov.in/div_history.php
https://kmb.kerala.gov.in/en/ports/alappuzha-port
Q.51) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Sustainable development should take place
without damaging the environment and development in the present time should not
compromise with the needs of the future generations.
Reason (R) : Agenda 21 was signed by world leaders in 1995.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code:
a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
b) (A) is false, but (R) is true
c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Assertion A is correct: Sustainable
development aims to promote economic
growth and human well-being without causing environmental degradation. It
emphasizes that current development efforts must not compromise the
ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
Reason R is incorrect. Agenda 21 is a comprehensive plan of action adopted at
the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) held in
Rio de Janeiro in 1992, not 1995. It aimed to promote sustainable
development globally.
Source: CLass 11 NCERT- Indian Economy- Chapter 9-
ENVIRONMENT AND
SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT- Page 171,172
https://sustainabledevelopment.un.org/outcomedocuments/agenda21
https://www.un.org/sustainabledevelopment/blog/2023/08/what-is-sustainable-development/
Q.52) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
using the code given below the lists.
|
List-I (Pulitzer award categories) |
List – II (Awardee in 2025) |
|
A. Fiction |
1. Jason Roberts |
|
B. Music |
2. Branden Jacobs
Jenkins |
|
C. Biography |
3. Susie Ibarra |
|
D. Drama |
4. Percival Everett |
Code:
A B C D
a) 3 4 2 1
b) 4 3 1 2
c) 4 3 2 1
d) 3 4 1 2
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Pair A – 4 is correct. Percival Everett won the 2025 Pulitzer Prize in Fiction for
his novel James (a reimagining of Adventures of Huckleberry Finn).
Pair B – 3 is correct. Susie Ibarra received the Pulitzer Prize in Music for
her work Sky Islands, a work about ecosystems and biodiversity.
Pair C – 1 is correct. Jason Roberts won in the Biography category
for his book Every Living Thing: The Great and Deadly Race to Know All Life. It
is a beautifully written double biography of Carl Linnaeus and Georges-Louis de
Buffon, 18th century contemporaries who devoted their lives to identifying and
describing nature’s secrets.
Pair D – 2 is correct. Branden Jacobs
Jenkins won the Pulitzer in Drama for
his play Purpose, which received widespread critical acclaim. ‘Purpose’ is a
play about the complex dynamics and legacy of an upper middle class
African-American family whose patriarch was a key figure in the Civil Rights
Movement.
Source: https://www.pulitzer.org/prize-winners-by-year/2025
Q.53) Which of the following enzymes is/are released in the
stomach for protein digestion ?
1.
Chymotrypsin
2.
Trypsin
3. Pepsin
Select the correct answer using the code given
below :
Code :
a) Only 1 and 2
b) Only 3
c) Only 2 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Chymotrypsin is a digestive enzyme secreted by
the pancreas into the small intestine, not the stomach.
Statement 2 is incorrect.Trypsin is secreted by the pancreas as
trypsinogen, and activated in the small intestine
Statement 3 is correct. Pepsin is the proteolytic
enzyme in the stomach, secreted by gastric glands in its inactive
form pepsinogen. In the presence of HCl, pepsinogen converts into active
pepsin, which breaks down proteins into peptones and proteases.
Q.54) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : India has a Parliamentary system of
Government.
Reason (R) : In India, the executive is responsible to
the legislature.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code :
1.
a) Both (A) and (R)
are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2.
b) (A) is false, but
(R) is true
3.
c) (A) is true, but
(R) is false
4. d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Assertion A is correct. India follows
the British model of parliamentary
democracy, where the executive (Council of Ministers headed by the
Prime Minister) is drawn from and responsible to the legislature.
Reason R is correct. In the parliamentary system the executive
is responsible to the Legislature. This is provided by the
constitution under Article 75 ( the Council of Ministers is
collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha). The legislature can remove the
executive through a no-confidence motion.
Source:page 83 of https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/keps204.pdf
Page 80 fo https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/keps204.pdf
Q.55) Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched
?
|
(Pass) |
(State/Union Territory) |
|
1. Lipulekh |
Ladakh |
|
2. Nathu La |
Sikkim |
|
3. Bomdila |
Arunachal Pradesh |
|
4. Shipki La |
Himachal Pradesh |
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code :
a) Only 1 and 2
b) Only 2, 3 and 4
c) Only 1, 2 and 3
d) Only 1
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is incorrect. Lipulekh Pass is a mountain pass, situated in the
Pithoragarh district of Uttarakhand, India. It serves as a
vital link between India and Tibet (China) and is a significant part of the
trade and pilgrimage route.
Pair 2 is correct. Nathu-La is a mountain pass in the Himalayas in Sikkim
state.It connects the Indian state of Sikkim with China’s Tibet Autonomous
Region.
Pair 3 is correct. Bom Di La pass is situated at an altitude of 4331 m near the
western boundary of Bhutan in Arunachal Pradesh, this pass connects Arunachal
Pradesh with Lhasa.
Pair 4 is correct. Shipki La is located at the Indo-China border in Himachal
Pradesh. It is located at an altitude of over 6000 m and provides a
road connection between Himachal Pradesh and Tibet.
Source: https://bharatrannbhoomidarshan.gov.in/destinations/details/8/lipulekh-pass
https://indiacinehub.gov.in/location/nathu-la-pass
Khullar – Indian geography – Page 70 – 72
Q.56) Which among the following words were inserted in the
Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitution
Amendment ?
1.
Socialist
2.
Secular
3.
Sovereign
4. Republic
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code :
a) 1 and 3
b) 3 and 4
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 2
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the
‘Objectives Resolution’, drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru, and adopted by the
Constituent Assembly. It has been amended by the 42nd Constitutional
Amendment Act (1976), which added three new words–Socialist, Secular and
Integrity.
Source:
Book: Laxmikant Sixth edition, chapter: 4-
(Preamble of the Constitution)
Q.57) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
using the code given below the lists.
|
List – I (Emperor) |
List – II (City where Tomb is located) |
|
A. Babur |
1. Agra |
|
B. Humayun |
2.Lahore |
|
C. Jahangir |
3. Delhi |
|
D. Shah Jahan |
4. Kabul |
Code :
A B C D
a) 4 3 2 1
b) 3 4 1 2
c) 3 4 2 1
d) 4 3 1 2
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Pair A – 4 is correct. Babur, the founder of the Mughal Empire, was
buried in Kabul (Afghanistan) in the Bagh-e-Babur (Garden of Babur).
Pair B – 3 is correct. Humayun’s tomb is
located in Delhi, near the Yamuna River.
Pair C – 2 is correct. Jahangir’s tomb is
situated in Shahdara Bagh, Lahore (present-day Pakistan).
Pair D – 1 is correct. Shah Jahan’s tomb is
inside the Taj Mahal in Agra, which he himself built for Mumtaz Mahal.
Source:https://whc.unesco.org/en/tentativelists/5469/
https://whc.unesco.org/en/list/232/
https://www.wmf.org/monuments/tomb-of-jahangir
https://whc.unesco.org/en/list/252/
Q.58) Which of the following Ramsar wetland sites is/are NOT
situated in Uttar Pradesh ?
1.
Sarsai Nawar Jheel
2.
Samaspur Bird
Sanctuary
3.
Rudrasagar Lake
4. Sultanpur National Park
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code :
a) 1 and 3
b) 3 and 4
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 2
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Option 1 is correct. Sarsai Nawar Jheel is located in Etawah district (Uttar
Pradesh), this freshwater jheel is an important habitat for the Sarus crane
and other migratory waterbirds. It was designated as a Ramsar site to protect
its bird-rich marshes.
Option 2 is correct. Samaspur Bird Sanctuary is situated near Rae Bareli (Uttar
Pradesh). Samaspur is a mosaic of shallow wetlands attracting large numbers
of wintering ducks, storks and herons. Its Ramsar status recognizes its role in
sustaining avifaunal diversity
Option 3 is incorrect. Rudrasagar is in
Tripura and not in Uttar
Pradesh. It is a lake–wetland system fed by small rivulets and is a key
waterbird site of the Northeast.
Option 4 is incorrect. Sultanpur National Park
lies in Haryana (near Gurugram). It’s
a shallow wetland famed for winter migrants like geese, ducks and waders, and
is listed as a Ramsar site.
Source: https://moef.gov.in/uploads/pdf-uploads/pdf_683d78bed6ae93.65077128.pdf
https://rsis.ramsar.org/ris/2411
https://rsis.ramsar.org/ris/2415
https://rsis.ramsar.org/ris/1572
https://rsis.ramsar.org/ris/2457
Q.59) Global Wage Report 2024-25 was released by which of the
following organizations?
1.
International Labour
Organisation
2.
World Bank
3. International Bank for Reconstruction and
Development
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code :
a) 1 and 2
b) Only 3
c) 2 and 3
d) Only 1
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The Global Wage Report 2024-25 was released by
the International Labour Organisation. It provides a detailed look at wage trends around the world and
in different regions, highlighting changes in wage inequality and real wage
growth. It explores key challenges workers face globally and sheds light on
patterns of income differences between and within countries.
Q.60) The Global Financial Stability Report is released by which
among the following?
1.
International Monetary
Fund
2.
World Economic Forum
3. World Bank
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code :
a) 1 and 2
b) Only 3
c) 2 and 3
d) Only 1
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The Global Financial Stability Report is
released by the International Monetary Fund. It provides an assessment of the global
financial system and markets, and addresses emerging market financing in a
global context.
Source: https://www.imf.org/en/Publications/GFSR
Q.61) With reference to lichens, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1.
Lichens are very good
indicators of pollution.
2. Lichens grow well in polluted areas.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code :
a) Only 2
b) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Only 1
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. A lichen is a peculiar combination of an alga and
a fungus– the two live deriving mutual benefit. Lichens serve as good bio-indicators
for air pollution, especially sulphur dioxide (SO₂) pollution.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Most lichens are very sensitive to air
pollution and so won’t grow if there are high levels of pollutants
Source:
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/environment/lichens-are-reliable-monitors-of-air-pollution-30207
https://websites.rbge.org.uk/lichen/urban_air_pollution/FAQs.pdf
Q.62) Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched
?
|
(Day) |
(Date) |
|
1. International Ozone Day |
16 September |
|
2. World Environment Day |
5 June |
|
3. World Wildlife Day |
22 March |
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code :
a) 1 and 3
b) Only 3
c) 2 and 3
d) Only 1
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is correct. The International Day for
the Preservation of the Ozone Layer, observed every year on 16 September to mark the 1987
Montreal Protocol.
Pair 2 is correct. World Environment Day is celebrated on 5 June annually,
with a rotating host country and theme.
Pair 3 is incorrect. World Wildlife Day is
observed on 3 March, commemorating
the adoption of CITES.
Source:
https://www.un.org/en/observances/list-days-weeks
https://www.un.org/en/observances/ozone-day
https://www.un.org/en/observances/environment-day
https://www.un.org/en/observances/world-wildlife-day
Q.63) With reference to ‘Brazil’ which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1.
The equatorial
rainforests of Brazil are called ‘Selvas’.
2. The dark black colour fertile land here is
called ‘Terra Roxa’.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code:
a) Only 2
b) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Only 1
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. In South American geography, the dense
equatorial evergreen forests of Amazon basin (Brazil ) are commonly
referred to as Selvas.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The expression Terra
Roxa soil is used in the
Brazilian states of São Paulo, Paraná, Minas Gerais, and others to designate
soils of basic origin, of high
fertility, red color, violet tonal quality,
and almost always of
a clayey texture.
Source: G. C. Leong – Page 118
https://www.alice.cnptia.embrapa.br/alice/bitstream/doc/395110/1/Soils-of-the-Brazilian-Amazon.pdf
https://files.isric.org/public/documents/isric_report_1991_05.pdf
Q.64) Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct
answer using the code given below the lists.
|
List – I (Finance Commission) |
List – II (Chairman) |
|
A. Eleventh |
1. Dr. C. Rangarajan |
|
B. Twelfth |
2. Dr. Y. V. Reddy |
|
C. Thirteenth |
3. Prof. A. M.
Khusro |
|
D. Fourteenth |
4. Dr. Vijay L.
Kelkar |
Code :
A B C D
a) 3 1 4 2
b) 2 3 4 1
c) 3 2 1 4
d) 1 3 2 4
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Pair A- 3 is correct.The 11th Finance
Commission (constituted in 1998,
award period 2000–05) was chaired by Prof. A. M. Khusro.
Pair B- 1 is correct.The 12th Finance
Commission (constituted in 2002,
award period 2005–10) was headed by Dr. C. Rangarajan.
Pair C- 4 is correct.The 13th Finance
Commission (constituted in 2007,
award period 2010–15) was chaired by Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar.
Pair D- 2 is correct.The 14th Finance
Commission (constituted in 2013,
award period 2015–20) was chaired by Dr. Y. V. Reddy.
Source:https://fincomindia.nic.in/commission-reports
Book: Laxmikant Sixth edition, Table:45.1
(Finance Commission)
Q.65) Which among the following is/are NOT a social indicator of
poverty ?
1.
Illiteracy
2.
Safe drinking water
3.
Job opportunities
4. Size of the house
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code :
a) 1 and 2
b) Only 4
c) 3 and 4
d) Only 1
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Usually the indicators used for poverty relate
to the levels of income and consumption. But now poverty is looked at through
other social indicators like illiteracy level, lack of general
resistance due to malnutrition, lack of access to healthcare, lack of job
opportunities, lack of access to safe drinking water, sanitation etc.
https://www.un.org/esa/socdev/unyin/documents/ydiDavidGordon_poverty.pdf
Q.66) Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct
answer using the code given below the lists.
|
List – I (Lok Sabha) |
List – II (Lok Sabha Speaker) |
|
A. 11th Lok Sabha |
1. Om Birla |
|
B. 12th Lok Sabha |
2. P. A. Sangma |
|
C. 14th Lok Sabha |
3. Somnath
Chatterjee |
|
D. 17th Lok Sabha |
4. G.M.C. Balyogi |
Code:
A B C D
a) 2 4 3 1
b) 4 2 3 1
c) 3 2 4 1
d) 2 3 4 1
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Pair A- 2 is correct. The 11th Lok Sabha (1996 – 1997) was formed after the 1996 general
elections. During this term, Purno Agitok Sangma (P. A. Sangma) was
elected as the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Pair B- 4 is correct.The 12th Lok Sabha (1998 – 1999) was formed after the 1998 general
elections. G. M. C. Balayogi was elected as the Speaker.
Pair C- 3 is correct.The 14th Lok Sabha (2004
– 2009) had Somnath Chatterjee as its Speaker.
Pair D- 1 is correct.The 17th Lok Sabha from
2019-2024 had Om Birla, a
BJP MP from Kota, Rajasthan, as the Speaker.
Source: https://sansad.in/ls/about/speaker?1
Book: Laxmikant Sixth edition, Table:22.8
(Speakers of the Lok Sabha)
Q.67) With reference to the Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle, 1748,
which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.
The first Carnatic war
ended.
2. Madras was returned to the British.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code:
a) Only 2
b) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Only 1
Ans) c
Exp)Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. The First Carnatic War
ended in 1748 when the Treaty of Aix-La Chapelle was signed bringing the Austrian War of
Succession to a conclusion.
Statement 2 is correct. Under the terms of the treaty of Aix-La
Chapelle, Madras was handed back to the English, and the
French, in turn, got their territories in North America.
Source:
Book: A Brief History of Modern India by Rajiv
Ahir , 23rd Edition 2017, page number 4
Q.68) Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched
?
|
(City) |
River |
|
1. Budapest |
Danube |
|
2. Cologne |
Rhine |
|
3. New Orleans |
Missouri |
|
4. Hyderabad (India) |
Paleru |
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code :
a) Only 1, 2 and 3
b) Only 3 and 4
c) Only 2, 3 and 4
d) Only 1 and 2
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is correct. Budapest, the capital of Hungary, is famously situated on
the banks of the River Danube, Europe’s second-longest river
after the Volga.
Pair 2 is correct. Cologne is located in western Germany on the River
Rhine. The Rhine is one of Europe’s most important rivers, supporting
trade, transport, and tourism.
Pair 3 is incorrect. New Orleans, in the U.S. state of Louisiana, is located on
the Mississippi River, not the Missouri. The Mississippi is
one of North America’s longest rivers
Pair 4 is incorrect. Hyderabad, the capital of Telangana, is located on
the banks of the Musi River, a tributary of the Krishna River.
Source:https://archiv.budapest.hu/sites/english/Lapok/General-informations-about-Budapest.aspx
https://eurocities.eu/cities/cologne/
https://musi.telangana.gov.in/aboutmrdcl.aspx
Q.69) With reference to ‘Baking Soda’, which of the following
statements is/are correct ?
1.
It is sodium hydrogen
carbonate.
2. It is used in fire extinguishers.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code :
a) Only 2
b) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Only 1
Ans) c
Exp)Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. “Baking soda” is the common name for sodium hydrogen
carbonate (also called sodium bicarbonate), with the formula NaHCO₃.
Statement 2 is correct.Sodium bicarbonate is
used in certain fire extinguishers. In classic soda–acid extinguishers, an aqueous NaHCO₃ solution reacts with acid to generate CO₂, which smothers the fire.
Source:https://www.ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/gesc104.pdf
Q.70) Which of the following prepared the Annual Groundwater
Quality Report 2024 ?
1.
Central Pollution
Control Board
2.
Central Water
Commission
3. Central Groundwater Board
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code :
a) 1 and 2
b) Only 3
c) 2 and 3
d) Only 1
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Annual Groundwater Quality Report
2024 was prepared by the Central
Ground Water Board (CGWB), which functions under the Ministry of Jal
Shakti, Department of Water Resources, River Development & Ganga
Rejuvenation, Government of India.The Annual Groundwater Quality Report
provides data on key parameters such as pH, EC, Nitrate, Fluoride, Arsenic,
Iron, and other contaminants.
Source:https://cgwb.gov.in/cgwbpnm/public/uploads/documents/17363272771910393216file.pdf
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2089040
Q.71) Who among the following were the members of the Fazal Ali
Commission?
1.
K. T. Shah
2.
K. M. Panikkar
3.
P. Sitaramaiah
4. H. N. Kunjaru
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code :
a) 1 and 3
b) 2 and 4
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 2
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Fazl Ali Commission was appointed by the Government of India in
1953 to examine the demand for the reorganization of states on a linguistic
basis. Headed by Fazl Ali, with H.N. Kunzru and K.M. Panikkar as members, the
Commission submitted its report in 1955. It rejected the idea of linguistic
states as the sole criterion
Source:
Book: Laxmikant Sixth edition, chapter: 5th
(Union and its Territory)
Q.72) Consider the following and arrange them in the correct
chronological order.
1.
Atal Mission for
Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation
2.
Jawaharlal Nehru
National Urban Renewal Mission
3.
Jal Jeevan Mission
4. National Urban Housing and Habitat Policy
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code :
a) 2, 4, 1, 3
b) 4, 2, 1, 3
c) 2, 4, 3, 1
d) 4, 2, 3, 1
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1. Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and
Urban Transformation (AMRUT) was launched on 25th June 2015 in 500 cities
and towns across the country. The Mission focuses on development of basic
infrastructure, in the selected cities and towns, in the sectors of water
supply; sewerage and septage management; storm water drainage; green spaces and
parks; and non-motorized urban transport.
Statement 2.Government of India launched the Jawaharlal Nehru
National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM) including sub-component namely
Urban Infrastructure Development Scheme for Small and Medium Towns (UIDSSMT)
and Urban Infrastructure and Governance (UIG) in December, 2005 for
a period of 7 years i.e., up to 31stMarch, 2012.
Statement 3.Government of India had launched Jal Jeevan Mission
(JJM), a centrally sponsored scheme in August 2019, aiming
at providing Functional Household Tap Connection (FHTC) to every rural
household by 2024.
Statement 4.The National Urban Housing
& Habitat Policy was launched in 2007. It seeks to promote
various types of public-private partnerships for realizing the goal of “
Affordable Housing For All’ with special emphasis on the urban poor.
Source:https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1885837
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1910166
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2149208
https://www.pib.gov.in/newsite/erelcontent.aspx?relid=33884
Q.73) With reference to ‘earthworms’, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1.
Earthworms improve
soil fertility and are known as farmer’s friends.
2. Earthworms have two pairs of hearts.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code :
a) Only 2
b) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Only 1
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. Earthworms make the soil loose, mix nutrients, and increase
its fertility. Their waste (called worm castings) is full of nutrients
that help plants grow. Because they naturally improve the soil, they are
called “farmers’ friends.”
Statement 2 is incorrect.Earthworms lack a
true heart like birds; instead,
they have a tubular, muscular structure known as the aortic arch running along
the dorsal side of their body. The aortic arch functions like a pump, or pseudo
heart. “Earthworms possess five pairs of pseudo-hearts, running
along the length of their body.
Source:https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/nsqf/Vermicomposting-621-english-revised.pdf
Q.74) Arrange the following saints in correct chronological
order and select the correct answer from the code given below.
1.
Nanak
2.
Chaitanya Mahaprabhu
3.
Namdev
4. Kabir
Code :
a) 3, 4, 2, 1
b) 4, 3, 1, 2
c) 3, 4, 1, 2
d) 4, 3, 2, 1
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1.Guru Nanak was the founder of Sikhism and the first of
the ten Sikh Gurus. He lived between 1469-1539 AD. He preached
equality, devotion to one God, and service to humanity. His teachings combined
elements of Bhakti and Sufi traditions.
Statement 2.Chaitanya Mahaprabhu was a 15th–16th century (1486-1534
AD) saint from Bengal, known for popularizing the Bhakti movement
through ecstatic devotion to Lord Krishna. He led mass congregational chanting
(sankirtan) and inspired the Gaudiya Vaishnavism tradition.
Statement 3.Namdev was a Bhakti saint from Maharashtra who lived
during the 1270 to 1340 AD. He was a devotee of Lord Vitthal
(a form of Krishna) and composed devotional songs in Marathi and Hindi.
Statement 4. Kabir was a 15th-century (exact
year is not known) mystic poet and saint from Varanasi. He criticized religious
orthodoxy and emphasized a direct connection with the divine through love and
devotion. His dohas (couplets) are widely known for their simplicity and
spiritual depth.
Source: Nitin Singhania – 3rd edition-
Appendix 2 – Bhakti and Sufi movement-page- 738-740
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/35237/1/Unit-3.pdf
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/71537/1/Unit-10.pdf
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/73314/1/Unit-14.pdf
Q.75) Which of the following is/are NOT a cold ocean current ?
1.
Agulhas current
2.
Brazil current
3.
Humboldt current
4. California current
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code :
a) 1 and 3
b) 3 and 4
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 2
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Option 1 is incorrect. The Agulhas Current is
a warm current. It flows along the
southeast coast of Africa and carries warm water from the Indian Ocean toward
the Cape of Good Hope.
Option 2 is incorrect. The Brazil Current is a
warm current. It flows southward
along the east coast of South America and brings warm tropical water into
temperate regions
Option 3 is correct.The Humboldt Current (also called the Peru Current) flows northward
along the west coast of South America. It is a cold current because
it brings cold, nutrient-rich water up from the deep sea supporting rich marine
life.
Option 4 is correct.California Current flows southward along the western coast
of North America and is a cold current.
Source: Class 11 NCERT- Fundamentals of
Physical geography- Chapter 14-MOVEMENTS OF OCEAN WATER- page 119- 120
https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/316-New/Book-1/Ch-5.pdf
Q.76) With reference to ‘Multi-Dimensional Poverty
Index’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.
It was developed and
introduced in 2010.
2. It measures extreme poverty and includes those
living on less than one dollar per day.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
Code:
(a) Only 2
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Only 1
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
In recent years, poverty has come to be
understood not just as a lack of income, but also as a deprivation of
basic capabilities like education, health, sanitation, and a decent
standard of living. That is why institutions like the Oxford Poverty
and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) and the UNDP Human
Development Report Office developed a more comprehensive
measure of poverty – the MPI. This index helps
identify how people are poor, not just how many are poor.
Statement 1 is correct. The MPI was first introduced in the
year 2010 as part of the Human Development Report published by
the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). The methodology
was designed by Sabina Alkire and James Foster at OPHI,
which works in collaboration with UNDP. It was brought in to replace
the Human Poverty Index, which was based mainly on income and did not
capture the broader aspects of deprivation.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The MPI is not based on a monetary
threshold such as “less than one dollar per day.” Instead, it measures
acute multidimensional deprivation in health, education, and standard
of living. It is a non‑monetary measure that complements,
rather than replaces, income‑based measures of extreme poverty.
Source: https://ophi.org.uk/global-mpi-faqs
https://www.undp.org/india/national-multidimensional-poverty-index-progress-review-2023
Q.77) Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched
?
(Acid)
(Acid found in)
1.
Lactic acid – Curd
2.
Tartaric acid – Grapes
3. Acetic acid – Potato
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 1
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer.
Several naturally occurring acids are present
in the food we eat. These acids contribute to the taste, preservation,
and digestive benefits of various items. For example, tamarind’s
tanginess, curd’s sourness, or vinegar’s sharpness – all come from
organic acids.
Pair 1 is correct. Lactic acid is produced when lactose
(milk sugar) undergoes fermentation by lactic acid bacteria.
This is the same process that turns milk into curd or yoghurt. Lactic acid
gives curd its sour taste and also helps preserve it
naturally.
Pair 2 is correct. Tartaric acid is a naturally
occurring organic acid found predominantly in grapes, as
well as in tamarind and bananas. It gives grapes their tangy taste and
is also used in baking powders
Pair 3 is incorrect. Acetic acid is the main component of
vinegar, and it is not found in potatoes. Potatoes primarily
contain starch and trace elements of other acids, but not
acetic acid. Acetic acid is more commonly associated with fermented
foods like vinegar and pickles.
Source: https://pmfme.mofpi.gov.in/pmfme/newsletters/enewsnovember6.html; https://www.ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/gesc104.pdf Page
39
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/lebo108.pdf
Q.78) With reference to the Indian Ocean’, which of the
following statements is/are correct ?
1.
It was called by the
Ancient Greeks as Erythraean Sea.
2. It is spread on the either side of equator.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code:
(a) Only 2
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Only 1
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
The Indian Ocean has not only played a major
role in trade and civilisation contact but also holds
importance due to its strategic geographical position. From ancient
mariners to modern geopolitics, this ocean has always been in focus. Its historical
naming and location with respect to the equator are
both facts rooted in classical texts and geographical data.
Statement 1 is correct. Ancient Greek and Roman texts, including
the Periplus of the Erythraean Sea, referred to the north-western
part of the Indian Ocean (including the Arabian Sea and Red Sea) as
the Erythraean Sea. The term “Erythraean” is believed to have come
from a king named Erythras or from the Greek word “erythros,” meaning red. This
shows that Greek traders were aware of and actively navigated parts
of the Indian Ocean centuries before the Common Era.
Statement 2 is correct. The Indian Ocean spans both the Northern
and Southern Hemispheres. The equator runs through it, roughly bisecting
it. The ocean stretches northwards to the Indian subcontinent and
Arabian Peninsula, and southwards beyond Madagascar towards the
Southern Ocean. So, the Indian Ocean is indeed located on either
side of the equator, making it unique among the three major oceans.
Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/etimes/trending/why-is-the-indian-ocean-the-only-one-named-after-a-modern-country-in-the-world/articleshow/122084276.cms ; https://www.downtoearth.org.in/pollution/erythraean-sea-why-rubymar-s-sinking-in-the-southern-red-could-be-an-environmental-catastrophe-94828
Q.79) Arrange the following events in correct chronological
order and select the correct answer from the code given below.
1.
Battle of Kannauj
2.
Battle of Daurah
3.
Battle of Samugarh
4. Battle of Chausa
Code:
(a) 2, 4, 3, 1
(b) 4, 2, 1, 3
(c) 4, 2, 3, 1
(d) 2, 4, 1, 3
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
There were major battles fought during
the mid-16th to 17th century involving Sher Shah Suri,
Humayun, and the sons of Shah Jahan. These battles were not just military
engagements, but turning points that shaped the Mughal Empire’s rise, fall, and
re-emergence.
Option 1. Battle of Kannauj (1540 CE) also known as
the Battle of Bilgram, this was Humayun’s final defeat at
the hands of Sher Shah. After this battle, Humayun lost the Mughal
throne completely and had to flee to Persia, leaving the Sur Empire in
control of North India.
Option 2. Battle of Daurah (1532 CE) occurred earlier
when Sher Khan was still building his power. Humayun defeated the Afghans
at Daurah, then laid siege to the fort of Chunar. Sher
Khan promised loyalty, leading Humayun to lift the siege, a strategic
blunder. This allowed Sher Khan to regroup and later defeat Humayun at
Chausa and Kannauj.
Option 3. Battle of Samugarh (1658 CE) was a decisive
battle of succession between the sons of Shah Jahan. Aurangzeb
defeated Dara Shikoh near Agra and went on to imprison his father and
claim the Mughal throne. This battle marked the beginning of
Aurangzeb’s reign and a shift in Mughal politics
Option 4. Battle of Chausa (1539 CE) was the first
major defeat of Humayun at the hands of Sher Shah Suri. It
took place near Buxar in Bihar, where Humayun was caught off-guard
and forced to flee. Sher Shah took the title of Sher Shah Suri after
this victory and laid the foundation of the Sur Empire.
Hence the correct chronological order is:
2.
Daurah
– 1532 (early victory)
3.
Chausa
– 1539 (first major defeat)
4.
Kannauj
– 1540 (final loss of throne)
5. Samugarh – 1658 (Aurangzeb’s rise)
Source: Tamilnadu Class 11 History New Book
Part 2 – The Mughal Empire – Page 32; NCERT Medieval – History of
Medieval India (Satish Chandra) – Struggle for Empire in North India—II Mughals
and Afghans (1525–1555) – Page 227 and Page 232; Climax and Disintegration of
the Mughal Empire—I – Page 346;
NCERT Medieval – History of Medieval India (Satish Chandra)
Q.80) Which of the following statements with reference to ‘blood’
is/are correct?
1.
Blood is composed of
plasma and different types of cells.
2. The presence of haemoglobin makes blood appear
red.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) Only 2
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Only 1
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
Blood is one of the most important fluids in
our body. It flows continuously through blood vessels, ensuring
that oxygen, nutrients, and waste products are properly
transported. It connects every organ and tissue, acting as the body’s internal
delivery and cleaning system.
Statement 1 is correct. Blood consists of a fluid part
called plasma, in which various types of cells are suspended.
Plasma helps in carrying digested food, hormones, and waste materials
throughout the body. The cellular components include red blood cells
(RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs), and platelets. Each of these performs a
special function — RBCs carry oxygen, WBCs defend the body against infections,
and platelets help in clotting when a cut or injury occurs.
Statement 2 is correct. Red blood cells contain a pigment
called haemoglobin, which has the special ability to bind with
oxygen and transport it to all parts of the body. Without haemoglobin,
oxygen supply to cells would not be efficient. The presence of
haemoglobin gives blood its red colour, making it one of the most visible
signs of life.
Source: https://www.ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/gesc107.pdf –
Page 70 and 71
Q.81) Who among the following Indian novelists and journalists
is/are part of the five member jury for the 2026 International Booker Prize?
1.
Natasha Brown
2.
Kiran Desai
3.
Nilanjana S. Roy
4. Rajni Chauhan
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4
(c) Only 3
(d) Only 1
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
The International Booker Prize announced
its 2026 judging panel, which includes a selection of authors,
critics, translators, and literary figures from around the world. Among the
five judges, the Indian representation is held by Nilanjana S. Roy,
a prominent novelist, journalist and columnist.
The full jury panel, chaired by English author
Natasha Brown, was announced on June 24, 2025. It consists of the following
members:
·
Natasha
Brown: English novelist
and chair of the jury
·
Marcus
du Sautoy: Oxford
University professor of mathematics
·
Sophie
Hughes: Literary
translator
·
Troy
Onyango: Kenyan writer
and editor
·
Nilanjana
S. Roy: Indian novelist,
journalist, and literary critic
Option 1. Natasha Brown is not
Indian; she is a British novelist and chairs the 2026 jury.
Option 2. Kiran Desai is a well-known Indian novelist
but is not part of this 2026 jury.
Option 3. Nilanjana S. Roy is the correct choice: she has been
officially named as a jury member for the 2026 International Booker Prize.
Option 4. Rajni Chauhan is not mentioned in the official list of
jury members for 2026.
Source: https://thebookerprizes.com/the-booker-library/prize-years/international/2026
Q.82) Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct
answer using the code given below the lists.
|
List – I (Committees of Constituent
Assembly) |
List – II (Chairman of Committees) |
|
A. Union Constitution Committee |
1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad |
|
B. Rules of Procedure Committee |
2. J. B. Kripalani |
|
C. Drafting Committee |
3. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar |
|
D. Fundamental Rights |
4. Jawaharlal Sub-committee Nehru |
Code:
A
B
C D
(a) 2
1
3 4
(b) 1
4
3 2
(c) 4
1
3 2
(d) 1 2
3 4
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
The Constituent Assembly of India had several
important committees to deliberate on different aspects of the Constitution.
Source: Indian Polity by M Laxmikanth – Making
of the Constitution – Committees of the Constituent Assembly
Q.83) Consider the following and arrange them in correct chronological
order.
1.
Jawahar Rojgar Yojana
2.
Development of women
and children in Rural Areas
3.
Integrated Rural
Development Programme
4. National Rural Employment Programme
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) 3, 4, 1, 2
(b) 4, 3, 2, 1
(c) 4, 3, 1, 2
(d) 3, 4, 2, 1
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
India’s approach to rural development has
evolved over the decades, with each programme introduced to meet a pressing
socio-economic need. These schemes have built the foundation of rural employment,
poverty reduction, and women empowerment.
Option 1. The Jawahar Rojgar Yojana (JRY) was launched on 1st
April 1989, by merging the NREP and RLEGP (Rural Landless Employment
Guarantee Programme). It focused on creating wage employment for
the rural poor and building rural infrastructure. It was the largest rural
employment scheme of its time.
Option 2. The Development of Women and Children in Rural Areas
(DWCRA) programme began in 1982 as a sub-component of IRDP. Its goal
was to empower rural women through income-generating
activities, support for childcare, and nutritional assistance. It focused on
forming self-help groups and building confidence among rural
women.
Option 3. The Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) was
launched in 1978 and rolled out nationwide by 1980. It was
India’s first major anti-poverty programme that sought to
provide asset-based self-employment to rural poor households.
It targeted small farmers, labourers, artisans, and marginalised groups.
Option 4. The National Rural Employment Programme (NREP) was
launched in 1980 as a centrally sponsored scheme. It aimed to
generate wage employment in rural areas through public works
and asset creation. It also marked the beginning of serious government efforts
to guarantee rural work opportunities.
Source: Indian Economy by Ramesh Singh –
Planning in India – Sixth Plan ; Seventh Plan; https://www.tnrd.tn.gov.in/Central_Schemes/linkfiles/defunct_schemes_jry_pg587.pdf ; https://www.tnrd.tn.gov.in/Central_Schemes/linkfiles/defunct_scheme_dwcra_pg581.pdf ; https://dspmuranchi.ac.in/pdf/Blog/irdp.pdf ; https://dspmuranchi.ac.in/pdf/Blog/nrep%2001.pdf
Q.84) Which of the following districts of Uttar
Pradesh shares its boundary with only one other district of Uttar Pradesh?
1.
Lalitpur
2.
Saharanpur
3.
SonbhadraSelect the
correct answer from the code given below :
Code:
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) All 1, 2 and 3
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) Only 1
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Option 1 is correct. Lalitpur shares a border with only
Jhansi in Uttar Pradesh. Lalitpur appears as a southern
exclave of Uttar Pradesh. It is almost surrounded by Madhya
Pradesh and has a clear and narrow connection only with Jhansi
district to its north.
Option 2 is incorrect. Saharanpur shares a border with
Muzaffarnagar and Shamli districts of Uttar Pradesh
besides touching Uttarakhand and Haryana. Therefore, it
shares boundary with more than one Uttar Pradesh district
Option 3 is incorrect. Located in the southeastern corner of UP,
Sonbhadra borders Mirzapur, Chandauli, and also
touches Bihar, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, and Madhya Pradesh. Despite
its extensive inter-state boundaries, it still shares borders with at
least two UP districts (Mirzapur and Chandauli)
Source: https://www.mapsofindia.com/maps/uttarpradesh/uttar-pradesh-district.htm
Q.85) With reference to Panchayati Raj Institutions in India,
which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1.
Tenure of Panchayati
Raj Institutions shall be of 5 years.
2.
In Panchayati Raj
Institutions, out of the seats reserved, 1/4 of the seats shall be reserved for
women belonging to Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribе.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) Only 2
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Only 1
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992
gave constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj system in India. It laid out
detailed provisions regarding structure, tenure, reservation and powers of
these grassroots-level institutions.
Statement 1 is correct. Article 243E of the
Indian Constitution clearly mentions that the term of every Panchayat
shall be for five years from the date of its first meeting. Elections
must be held before the expiry of this period, or within six months in case of
early dissolution. This ensures continuity and democratic accountability in
rural governance.
Statement 2 is incorrect. As per Article 243D, not
1/4th but 1/3rd of the total number of seats to be filled by direct
election in every Panchayat shall be reserved for women. This
one-third reservation includes women belonging to the Scheduled Castes
and Scheduled Tribes as well. The language used in the Constitution
does not specify a separate 1/4th quota for SC/ST women; it is part of the
broader 1/3rd reservation for all women
Source: Indian polity by M Laxmikant –
Panchayati Raj – 73rd Amendment Act of 1992
Q.86) Match List – I with List – II and select the correct
answer using the code given below the lists.
|
List-I
(Writer) |
List- II (Book) |
|
A. Trivikram Bhatta |
1. Gita Govinda |
|
B. Somdev |
2. Brihatkathamanjari |
|
C. Jaidev |
3. Nal Champu |
|
D. Kshemendra |
4. Katha Sarit Sagar |
Code:
A
B
C D
(a) 3
4
1 2
(b) 4
3
2 1
(c) 4 3
1 2
(d) 3 4
2
1
Ans) a
Exp) option a is the correct answer.
Source: Indian Art & Culture Nitin
Singhania – Indian Literature – Sanskrit Poetry – Page 503 and Page 505; https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/84531/1/Block-4.pdf ; https://www.indianculture.gov.in/rarebooks/ocean-story-somadeva-katha-sarit-sagara-or-ocean-streams-story ; https://lucknowdigitallibrary.com/publications/brahtkthajri-by-kchemendrvirchita
Q.87) Which of the following archaeological sites related to
Indus Valley civilization are situated in present day Uttar Pradesh ?
1.
Mandi
2.
Rakhigarhi
3.
Hulas
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) Only 1
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
While the Indus Valley is usually associated
with Pakistan and western India, many lesser-known but significant sites have
also been found in Uttar Pradesh.
Option 1 is correct. The archaeological site of Mandi (not
to be confused with Mandi in Himachal Pradesh) is one of the lesser-known Indus
Valley sites situated in western Uttar Pradesh. Excavations have uncovered
typical features of the Late Harappan phase like pottery, tools, and
structures.
Option 2 is incorrect. Rakhigarhi is one of the
most significant and largest known sites of the Indus Valley Civilization.
However, it is situated in Hisar district of Haryana, not Uttar
Pradesh.Option 3 is correct. Hulas is a confirmed Late
Harappan site located in Saharanpur district of Uttar Pradesh.
Excavations here revealed evidence of agricultural practices, storage pits, and
mud houses, suggesting a well-settled rural Harappan culture.
Source: Ancient history by R S Sharma – The
Harappan Civilization https://rabindramahavidyalaya.ac.in/images/uploads/Indus%20Vally%20Civilization.pdf
Q.88) Consider the following sources of world water supply and
arrange them in descending order.
1.
Oceans
2.
Rivers
3.
Polar ice and Glaciers
4.
Ground water
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) 1, 3, 4, 2
(b) 1, 2, 4, 3
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4
(d) 1, 4, 3, 2
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Water is distributed across various reservoirs
on Earth, but their quantities vary drastically.
Option 1. Oceans account for about 97.25% of all Earth’s water,
making them by far the largest single source of water on the planet. However,
this water is saline and not directly usable for drinking or irrigation without
desalination.
Option 2. Rivers contribute less than 0.01% to the
total water on Earth. Despite being the most visible and accessible source
of freshwater, they are minuscule in quantity compared to
oceans, ice caps, and even groundwater.
Option 3. Around 2.05% of Earth’s total water is locked
up in polar ice caps and glaciers. While not as accessible as
groundwater or river water, they form the largest store of freshwater on
the Earth. Thus, they come next after oceans in the global water hierarchy.
Option 4. Groundwater constitutes about 0.68% of the Earth’s
water, but what makes it important is that it forms a major source
of freshwater for human use, especially in agriculture and drinking.
3.
Polar Ice and Glaciers
4.
Groundwater
5. Rivers.
Source: Fundamental of Physical Geography –
Water (Oceans) – Water on the Earth’s surface
Q.89) Which of the following is/are a Financial Committee of
Parliament in India?
1.
Public Accounts
Committee
2.
Estimate Committee
3.
Committee on Public
Undertakings
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) All 1, 2 and 3
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) Only 1
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer.
The Indian Parliament functions through
various standing committees, one of the most important categories
of which is the Financial Committees. These committees ensure fiscal
accountability, transparency, and scrutiny of public expenditure and
executive functioning.
Option 1 is correct. The Public Accounts Committee is
a classic example of a financial oversight mechanism in a parliamentary system.
It examines the annual audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor
General (CAG) and ensures that public money is spent legally
and effectively. This committee holds the executive accountable to
Parliament and is a permanent fixture in the financial committee set-up.
Option 2 is correct. The Estimates Committee analyses
how money is allocated and whether it is being used efficiently. It suggests
alternative policies to bring about economy and efficiency in
expenditure. This committee deals with the estimates of expenditure and
tries to ensure that the money voted by Parliament is well-spent.
Option 3 is correct. The Committee on Public Undertakings reviews
the performance of Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) and
checks whether they are functioning in line with sound business principles and
as per parliamentary approval. It is a vital link between fiscal
oversight and accountability of government-owned enterprises.
Source: Indian Polity by M Laxmikant –
Parliamentary Committees – Financial Committees
Q.90) Match List – I with List – II and select the correct
answer from the code given belowthe lists.
|
List –I (National Park/ Wildlife Sanctuary) |
List – II (State/Union Territory) |
|
A. Dachingam |
1. Madhya Pradesh |
|
B. Keoladeo |
2. Rajasthan |
|
C. Kanha |
3. Kerala |
|
D. Periyar |
4. Jammu and Kashmir |
Code:
A B
C
D
(a) 4 2
3
1
(b) 2 4
1
3
(c) 2 4
3
1
(d) 4 2
1
3
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
India is home to a rich biodiversity,
safeguarded in various national parks and wildlife sanctuaries across
different states. Knowing their geographical locations not only helps in exams
but also enhances one’s appreciation for India’s ecological diversity.
Source: https://srinagar.nic.in/tourist-place/dachigam-national-park/ ; https://www.tourism.rajasthan.gov.in/keoladeo-ghana-national-park.html ; https://www.kanha-national-park.com/ ; https://www.incredibleindia.gov.in/en/kerala/munnar/periyar-national-park
Q.91) Which of the following countries is/are NOT a member of
the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic
Co-operation (BIMSTEC)’?
1.
Thailand
2.
Nepal
3.
Bhutan
4.
Indonesia
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code:
(a) 2 and 3
(b) Only 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) Only 1
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer.
The Bay of Bengal Initiative for
Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a
regional organization comprising countries from South Asia and
Southeast Asia. It was established to promote regional cooperation in areas
such as trade, technology, energy, transportation, and tourism among nations
dependent on or located near the Bay of Bengal.
Option 1 is correct. Thailand is a founding
member of BIMSTEC. It plays a key role in representing Southeast Asia in this
organization and has actively contributed to regional economic and security
dialogues under BIMSTEC.
Option 2 is correct. Nepal became a full member
of BIMSTEC in 2004. Despite being a landlocked country and not directly located
on the Bay of Bengal, Nepal’s membership aligns with the group’s broader focus
on South Asian regional integration.
Option 3 is correct. Bhutan is also a member of
BIMSTEC. It joined in 2004 along with Nepal. The inclusion of Bhutan and Nepal
demonstrates BIMSTEC’s strategic aim to enhance connectivity and cooperation in
the extended Bay of Bengal region.
Option 4 is incorrect. Indonesia, despite being located
in Southeast Asia, is not a member of BIMSTEC. It is, however, a
key member of ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations),
but it does not participate in the BIMSTEC framework.
Source: https://bimstec.org/member-states
Q.92) Which of the following pair is/are NOT correctly matched ?
(Dam)
(River)
1.
Baglihar Dam – Chenab
2.
Pandoh Dam – Ravi
3.
Srisailam Dam –
Tungabhadra
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 1
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is correct. The Baglihar Dam is located
on the Chenab River in the Ramban district of Jammu
and Kashmir. It is a run-of-the-river project aimed at hydroelectric power
generation and plays a critical role in the Indus Water Treaty discussions
between India and Pakistan.
Pair 2 is incorrect. The Pandoh Dam is actually
built on the Beas River, not the Ravi. It is situated in the Mandi
district of Himachal Pradesh and is an important component of the Beas
Project, which diverts water to the Satluj River for hydroelectricity and
irrigation.
Pair 3 is incorrect. The Srisailam Dam is
constructed across the Krishna River, not the Tungabhadra. Located
in the Nallamala Hills of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, it is
the second-largest hydroelectric project in the country. The Tungabhadra
River, on the other hand, is a tributary of the Krishna.
Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/india-opens-one-gate-at-baglihar-dam-built-on-the-chenab-river-in-ramban-to-regulate-rising-water-levels/articleshow/121073842.cms?from=mdr ; https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/chenab-swells-as-india-throws-open-2-gates-of-baglihar-dam/articleshow/121067297.cms ; https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/chandigarh/himachal-pradesh-heavy-rain-bbmb-spillway-gates-pandoh-dam-9861154/ ; https://manalitourism.co.in/pandoh-dam-manali ; https://indiawris.gov.in/wiki/doku.php?id=srisailam_dam_wtp967 ; https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/ndsa-flags-concerns-over-stability-of-srisailam-dam-101747507175336.html
Q.93) With reference to Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats and
Tangible Income (MISHTI), which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1.
It was initiated in
2019.
2. It aims to restore Mangrove forests.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) Only 2
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Only 1
Ans) a
Exp) option a is the correct answer.
The Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats
and Tangible Income (MISHTI) scheme was announced as part of India’s evolving
climate resilience strategy and focuses on ecological restoration with
a people-centric approach.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The MISHTI initiative was launched
in the Union Budget 2023–24 (and not in 2019) by the Finance Minister
of India. It is a recent effort aimed at addressing climate change
adaptation and sustainable livelihoods.
Statement 2 is correct. The core objective of the MISHTI programme
is to restore and promote the expansion of mangrove forests along
India’s coastline. The scheme envisions collaboration with coastal states
and other stakeholders for regenerating degraded mangrove habitats,
which serve as natural buffers against storms, rising sea levels, and
erosion. Moreover, mangroves support fisheries and provide
sustainable income to coastal communities.
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2002625
Q.94) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The Himalayas form source of several
large perennial rivers.
Reason (R): The higher ranges of imalayas are snow covered
throughout the year.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
Statement A is correct. Major river systems such as the Ganga,
Yamuna, Brahmaputra, and Indus originate in the Himalayan
mountain ranges. These rivers are referred to as perennial because
they flow throughout the year, unlike rivers dependent only on monsoon
rainfall.
Statement R is correct. The higher altitudes of the Himalayas,
particularly those above 4,500 metres, remain snow-covered throughout
the year. These permanent snowfields and glaciers, such as
the Gangotri and Yamunotri glaciers, continuously release water,
which sustains the flow of rivers even during dry seasons.
Statement R is the correct explanation of
Statement A. The snow-covered
higher reaches of the Himalayas, especially the glaciers and permanent
snowfields, act as natural reservoirs of freshwater. This snow
gradually melts throughout the year, even in non-monsoon months, ensuring
a continuous and stable flow of water into the river systems
that originate from the Himalayas.
This phenomenon is exactly what makes
these rivers perennial, meaning they have water flowing all year round.
Without this constant supply from melting snow, these rivers would not maintain
such sustained discharge levels outside the rainy season.
Source: https://www.ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kegy104.pdf –
Page 33
Q.95) Given below are two statements one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The territories of the Sultanate could
be broadly divided into two parts – the Khalsa and the Jagirs.
Reason (R) : The Jagirs comprised of the land under the control of the
State.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
The terms Khalsa and Jagir represent
a broad territorial classification used for revenue and governance purposes
under the Sultanate.
Statement A is correct. During the Sultanate and subsequent
Mughal period, the empire’s land was primarily divided into categories
like Khalsa (crown land whose revenue went directly to the
Sultan/Emperor’s treasury) and lands granted as Jagirs (revenue
assignments to nobles and officials in lieu of cash salary).
Statement R is incorrect. The Jagirs were not lands under the direct
control of the state. Instead, they were assigned to nobles or mansabdars, who
collected revenue from them for their services. The Khalsa lands were the ones
directly controlled by the state.
Source: https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/SrSec315NEW/History_Module2.pdf Page
201
Q.96) Match List – I with List – II and select the correct
answer using the code given below the lists.
|
List – I (Padmavibhushan Fields 2025) |
List – II (Awardee 2025) |
|
A. Trade and
Industry |
1. Shri
Lakshminarayana Subramaniam |
|
B. Literature and
Education |
2. Shri Osamu Suzuki |
|
C. Medicine |
3. Shri M. T.
Vasudevan Nair |
|
D. Art |
4. Shri D. Nageshwar
Reddy |
Code:
A B
C
D
(a) 3 2
1
4
(b) 2 3
4
1
(c) 2 3
1
4
(d) 3 2
4
1
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer.
The Padma Awards are among
the highest civilian honours in India, instituted in 1954 to
recognise distinguished contributions in various disciplines.
The awards are announced annually on the eve
of Republic Day and are conferred by the President of India at
ceremonial functions held at Rashtrapati Bhavan. They span a wide array of
fields such as Art, Literature, Science, Social Work, Public Affairs,
Trade & Industry, Civil Services, Sports, and Medicine.
Option C. Medicine – 4. Shri D. Nageshwar
Reddy
Dr. D. Nageshwar Reddy, a world‑renowned
gastroenterologist from Hyderabad, was recognised for his exceptional
contributions in medical science. He has pioneered several endoscopy
innovations and established advanced medical research in India.
Option D. Art – 1. Shri Lakshminarayana
Subramaniam
Celebrated violin maestro Dr. L.
Subramaniam was honoured for his distinguished contribution to the
field of art, especially Indian classical music. Known as the “Paganini of
Indian Classical Music”, he has blended Indian and Western traditions globally.
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2096285; https://www.padmaawards.gov.in/PadmaAwards/AboutAwards
Q.97) Pushkar Kumbh Mela 2025 was held in May 2025 in which of
the following State(s) ?
1.
Rajasthan
2.
Uttar Pradesh
3.
Uttarakhand
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 1
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer.
Option 1 is incorrect. The well-known Pushkar fair (camel‑festival)
takes place in Pushkar, Rajasthan. But Pushkar Kumbh Mela in
May 2025 was not in Rajasthan.
Option 2 is incorrect. Uttar Pradesh (UP) hosts
the Kumbh Mela at Prayagraj (the Maha Kumbh in 2025), but the Pushkar
Kumbh event is separate and not in UP.
Option 3 is correct. After 12 years, the Pushkar Kumbh Mela was
held in the village of Mana in Uttarakhand in
2025. The 2025 Pushkar Kumbh was inaugurated on 15 May 2025 at Keshav
Prayag in Mana village in the Chamoli district, located at the
confluence of the Alaknanda and Saraswati Rivers.
Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/life-style/travel/news/uttarakhnad-pushkar-kumbh-mela-returns-to-mana-after-a-hiatus-of-12-years/articleshow/121206129.cms ; https://www.indiatoday.in/information/story/chief-minister-dhami-announces-pushkar-kumbh-in-uttarakhand-after-12-years-2725192-2025-05-15
Q.98) Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1.
Dolphins and Whales
breathe through blowholes.
2.
Earthworm breathe
through their skin.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code:
(a) Only 2
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Only 1
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
Breathing is a vital life process seen across
all organisms, but the organs and methods used vary depending on the habitat
and type of organism. While aquatic animals usually have gills, some marine
mammals use lungs. Similarly, some terrestrial animals have evolved simpler
mechanisms like diffusion through skin
Statement 1 is correct. Dolphins and whales are mammals. Unlike
fish, they do not have gills. Instead, they breathe air through lungs just
like humans. Their nostrils are located on top of their heads,
called blowholes, which allow them to breathe easily when they
surface. These blowholes are adapted to open only when the animal is at the
surface and to remain shut when underwater, thus preventing water from entering
the lungs. This feature is critical for their survival in aquatic environments.
Statement 2 is correct. Earthworms do not have lungs or gills. They
respire through their moist skin by a process called cutaneous
respiration. Oxygen from the environment diffuses through their skin and
directly into the blood vessels. Similarly, carbon dioxide is released out
through the skin. For this reason, their skin must always remain moist,
which is why they are usually found in damp soil or come out during rains. If
their skin dries out, they cannot breathe and may die.
Source: https://uk.whales.org/whales-dolphins/how-do-whales-and-dolphins-breathe/ ;
Class VII NCERT Science (Ch: 10 Respiration in
Organisms) Pg: 115
Q.99) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The concept of National Integration
involves political, economic, social, cultural and psychological dimensions and
inter-relation between them.
Reason (R): The National Integration Council was
constituted in 1961 on the principle of ‘Unity in Diversity’.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
Ans) a
Exp) option a is the correct answer.
National Integration is the process by which
people from diverse social, cultural, linguistic and regional backgrounds come
together to form a unified national identity. It becomes especially critical
for a country like India which is known for its pluralism. Several initiatives
and institutions have worked towards this goal, including the establishment of
the National Integration Council.
Statement A is correct. The idea of National Integration
goes far beyond mere territorial unity. It involves harmony and
coordination among political systems, economic development, social
cohesion, cultural inclusiveness, and psychological belongingness. It also
includes trust and understanding between different communities,
religions, castes, regions and languages. A lack of integration in any of
these areas can create divisions that threaten the integrity of the nation.
Thus, National Integration is a multi-dimensional process.
Statement R is correct. The National Integration Council
(NIC) was indeed set up in 1961 under the
chairmanship of then Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru. It was
created to address the challenges of communalism, casteism, regionalism
and other social divisions. The guiding philosophy of the Council has
been ‘Unity in Diversity’, which reflects India’s civilisational
ethos of accepting and respecting differences. The council brings together
political leaders, community representatives, and social activists to discuss
and recommend strategies for national harmony.
Statement R is not the correct explanation of
Statement A. The establishment
of the NIC in 1961 is not the reason why National Integration includes
political, economic, social, cultural, and psychological aspects. Those
dimensions of integration were present and understood much before the NIC was
established.
Source: Indian Polity by M Laxmikant –
National Integration; https://www.mha.gov.in/sites/default/files/2022-10/NATIONALINTEGRATIONCOUNCIL_26082022_1%5B1%5D.pdf
Q.100) Consider the following elements found in a typical 70 kg
man and arrange them in correct increasing order.
1.
Sodium
2.
Potassium
3.
Copper
4. Iron
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code:
(a) 4, 3, 1, 2
(b) 3, 4, 2, 1
(c) 3, 4, 1, 2
(d) 4, 3, 2, 1
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
The human body contains a variety of elements
in varying quantities, each serving unique physiological roles. While oxygen,
carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen dominate by mass, trace elements such as copper
and iron play critical roles in enzyme activity and oxygen transport.
On the other hand, sodium and potassium are essential
electrolytes involved in nerve signaling and fluid balance.
Option 1. A typical human body contains about 90 grams of
sodium. It is mostly found outside the cells, in blood plasma
and interstitial fluid. Sodium is vital for maintaining osmotic
pressure, transmitting nerve impulses, and transporting
glucose and amino acids across membranes. The sodium-potassium
pump helps regulate these activities by moving sodium out of and
potassium into cells.
Option 2. Potassium is even more abundant than sodium, with
about 170 grams present in a 70 kg human body. Unlike sodium, potassium
is the major cation inside cells, where it activates enzymes and helps
in glucose oxidation to produce ATP. It plays a central
role in muscle contraction and nerve transmission.
Option 3. Copper is required in trace amounts,
approximately 0.06 grams in a 70 kg adult male. It functions as
a cofactor for enzymes involved in iron metabolism, the immune
system, and antioxidant defense
Option 4. Iron is more abundant than copper, with
about 5 grams present in an average adult male. Most of it is found
in hemoglobin, which transports oxygen in the blood. It also exists
in myoglobin and various enzymes. Although more abundant than copper, iron
remains a minor element compared to sodium and potassium.
Therefore, the final order in increasing
Abundance is:
3.
Copper
4.
Iron
5.
Sodium
6. Potassium
Source: 11th NCERT – Chemistry. Ch: 10 – The
s-block elements – Biological Importance of Sodium and Potassium (Pg: 306)
Q.101) Consider the following Committees relating to poverty and
arrange their formation in correct chronological order.
1.
Lakdawala Committee
2.
Rangarajan Committee
3.
Tendulkar Committee
4. Dandekar and Rath Committee
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
a) 4, 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 4, 3, 2
c) 1, 4, 2, 3
d) 4, 1, 3, 2
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Chronological Order of Committees on Poverty
Estimation:Dandekar and Rath Committee (1971)
·
First systematic study
on poverty in India.
·
Estimated poverty line
based on minimum calorie intake (2250 calories per person per day).
1.
Lakdawala
Committee (1993)
·
Recommended poverty
lines based on calorie consumption norms.
·
Used state-specific
poverty lines and CPI for agricultural labourers/industrial workers.
1.
Tendulkar
Committee (2005)
·
Shifted focus from
calorie intake to consumption expenditure including health and education.
·
Recommended using
Uniform Recall Period (URP) consumption data.
1.
Rangarajan
Committee (2012)
·
Recommended higher poverty lines than
Tendulkar.
·
Included better
nutrition, health, and education expenditure estimates.
Hence, the correct chronological sequence is:
Dandekar and Rath (1971) → Lakdawala (1993) → Tendulkar (2005) → Rangarajan
(2012)
Source: https://prsindia.org/theprsblog/more-privatisation-on-the-cards?page=17&per-page=1
Q.102) Which of the following languages is/are NOT included in
the Eighth Schedule of
Indian Constitution?
1.
Nepali
2.
Dogri
3.
Bodo
4. Bhojpuri
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) Only 1
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution
currently includes 22 languages, which are:
Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri,
Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Maithili, Malayalam, Manipuri,
Marathi, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santali, Sindhi,
Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu.
Therefore, Bhojpuri is the only language among
the options not included in the Eighth Schedule.
Source: https://rajbhasha.gov.in/en/languages-included-eighth-schedule-indian-constitution
Q.103) With reference to ‘acid and bases’, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1.
Acidic solutions have
pH more than 7.
2. Basic solutions have pH less than 7.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) Only 2
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Only 1
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Acidic solutions
have pH less than 7 because
they contain more hydrogen ions, making them sour and corrosive in nature.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Basic or alkaline
solutions have pH greater than 7 because they contain more hydroxide ions, making them bitter and
slippery to touch.
Source: https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/secscicour/Science_Tech/l-8_acids,_bases_and_salts.pdf
Q.104) Consider the tenure of the following Presidents of India
and arrange them in correct chronological order starting from carliest to the
last.
1.
Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
2.
K.R. Narayanan
3.
A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
4.
R. Venkataraman
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) 1, 4, 2, 3
(b) 4, 1, 3, 2
(c) 4, 1, 2, 3
(d) 1, 4, 3, 2
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Hence, in chronological order
(earliest to latest):
Neelam Sanjiva Reddy → R. Venkataraman → K. R.
Narayanan → A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
Hence, the Correct Answer is: (a) 1, 4, 2, 3
Source:
Q.105) Four Buddhist Councils were held at the following places.
Arrange them in correct chronological order and select the correct answer from
the code given below.
1.
Vaishali
2.
Rajagriha
3.
Kundalvana
4.
Pataliputra
Code:
a) 1, 2, 4, 3
b) 2, 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 1, 4, 3
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Chronological Order of the Four Buddhist
Councils;
1.
First
Buddhist Council – Rajagriha (Rajgir)
It was held soon after the death of the Buddha
in 483 BCE at Rajagriha, under the patronage of King Ajatashatru of Magadha.
The council was presided over by Mahakassapa.
The purpose was to preserve the Buddha’s
teachings. Ananda recited the Sutta Pitaka (teachings), and
Upali recited the Vinaya Pitaka (monastic rules).
2.
Second
Buddhist Council – Vaishali
It took place about 100 years after the
Buddha’s death (around 383 BCE) at Vaishali, under the patronage of King
Kalasoka.
It was presided over by Sabakami. The main
issue discussed was the relaxation of certain monastic rules by some monks of
Vaishali.
This council resulted in the first schism in
the Buddhist community — into Sthaviras (elders) and Mahasanghikas (great
assembly).
3. Third Buddhist Council – Pataliputra
It was convened during the reign of Emperor
Ashoka around 250 BCE at Pataliputra.
The council was presided over by Moggaliputta
Tissa.
At this council, the Abhidhamma Pitaka was
added, and Buddhist missions were sent to different countries
(including Sri Lanka).
4. Fourth Buddhist Council – Kundalvana (Kashmir)
It was held during the reign of Kanishka,
the Kushana ruler, in the 1st century CE at Kundalvana
near Kashmir.
The council was presided over by Vasumitra,
with the scholar Ashvaghosha also participating.
This council marked the final split of
Buddhism into Hinayana and Mahayana schools
and led to the compilation of commentaries on the Tripitakas in Sanskrit.
Hence, the Correct Chronological Order
is: Rajagriha → Vaishali → Pataliputra → Kundalvana
Therefore, the correct code is (c) 2,
1, 4, 3.
Source: Tamil Nadu Old SCERT, Class XI,
Chapter: 4 – Jainism and Buddhism, Page: 43.
Q.106) Match List I with List – II and choose the correct answer
using the code given below the lists.
|
List – I (Nuclear Power
Plant) |
List – II (State) |
|
A. Kudankulam |
1.Karnataka |
|
B. Kakrapar |
2. Tamil Nadu |
|
C. kaiga |
3. Rajasthan |
|
D. Rawatbhata |
4. Gujarat |
Code:
A
B
C D
(a)
4
2
1 3
(b)
2
4
3 1
(c)
2
4
1 3
(d)
4
2
3 1
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
1.
Kudankulam Nuclear
Power Plant — Tamil Nadu (2)
·
Located in Tirunelveli
district of Tamil Nadu, it is the largest nuclear power station in India.
·
Established in
collaboration with Russia (Rosatom) under the Indo-Russian agreement of 1988.
1.
Kakrapar Atomic Power
Station — Gujarat (4)
·
Situated near Surat in
Gujarat, this is the first fully indigenously designed 700 MW reactor developed
by Indian engineers.
·
Operated by the Nuclear
Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL).
1.
Kaiga Generating
Station — Karnataka (1)
·
Located in Uttara Kannada
district of Karnataka, this plant has four PHWR units.
·
It is known for
setting records for continuous operation; one unit operated for over 962 days
non-stop, the longest in the world for a PHWR.
1. Rawatbhata Atomic Power Station — Rajasthan
(3)
·
Located near Kota,
Rajasthan, this is one of India’s oldest nuclear power facilities,
commissioned in the 1970s with Canadian collaboration.
·
It houses multiple
PHWR units, including Rajasthan Atomic Power Station (RAPS) Units
1 to 7.
Therefore, the Correct Answer: (c) 2 4 1 3
Source: https://www.aerb.gov.in/english/regulatory-facilities/nuclear-power-plants
Q.107) Who among the following had won the International Booker
Prize in 2025 ?
1.
Banu Mushtaq
2.
Deepa Bhasthi
3. Sanjay Chauhan
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 1
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The 2025 International Booker Prize was awarded to Heart Lamp,
a collection of short stories written by Banu Mushtaq and translated from
Kannada into English by Deepa Bhasthi. The award jointly recognizes
both the author and the translator for outstanding literary work translated
into English and published in the United Kingdom.
Hence, both Banu Mushtaq and Deepa
Bhasthi won the International Booker Prize in 2025.
Source: https://thebookerprizes.com/the-booker-library/prize-years/international/2025
Q.108) Match List – I with List II and choose the -correct
answer using the code given below the lists.
|
List – I (Iron-ore Mines) |
List – II (State) |
|
A. Gurumahisani |
1. Jharkhand |
|
B. Bailadila |
2.Karnataka |
|
C. Noamundi |
3. Odisha |
|
D. Kudremukh |
4. Chhattisgarh |
Code:
A
B
C D
(a)
3
4
2 1
(b)
4
3
1 2
(c)
4
3
2 1
(d)
3
4
1 2
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
1.
Gurumahisani – Odisha
(3)
·
The Gurumahisani iron
ore mine is located in Mayurbhanj district of Odisha.
·
It is one of the
oldest iron ore mines in India, discovered by P. N. Bose in 1904.
1. Bailadila – Chhattisgarh (4)
·
The Bailadila
iron ore deposits are found in the Dantewada district of
Chhattisgarh.
·
The region is known
for its high-grade hematite iron ore, which has a high iron
content.
1. Noamundi – Jharkhand (1)
·
Noamundi is a well-known iron ore mining center
in West Singhbhum district of Jharkhand.
·
It is one of the main
sources of iron ore for Tata Steel, which operates major mines here.
1. Kudremukh – Karnataka (2)
·
Kudremukh is located in the Chikkamagaluru
district of Karnataka.
·
It is famous for
its magnetite iron ore deposits, which differ from the hematite
ores found elsewhere in India.
Hence, the Correct Code is: A – 3, B –
4, C – 1, D – 2
https://ibm.gov.in/writereaddata/files/08202014164430Nuvamundi%20Iron%20Ore%20Mnes-.pdf
https://sansad.in/getFile/annex/218/Au1051.pdf?source=pqars
Q.109) With reference to International Solar Alliance’, which of
the following statements is/are correct?
1.
It is the first treaty
based Inter-governmental organisation headquartered in India with 38 member
countries.
2. World Solar Bank and One Sun One World One
Grid Initiative were initiated under it.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
Code:
(a) Only 2
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Only
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The International Solar Alliance (ISA) is
indeed the first treaty-based intergovernmental organization headquartered in
India (Gurugram, Haryana).
However, as of 2025, it has over 120
signatory countries and over 90 member countries, not just 38.
Statement 2 is correct: The World Solar Bank and the ‘One Sun
One World One Grid’ (OSOWOG) initiative were both conceptualized under the ISA
framework to promote solar energy cooperation and financing globally.
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2071486
https://isa.int/one-sun-one-world-one-grid
https://ornatesolar.com/news/world-solar-bank
Q.110) Joint special forces exercise ‘KHANJAR-XII was held in
March 2025 between India and which of the following Countries?
1.
Russia
2.
Turkmenistan
3.
Kyrgyzstan
4. Mongolia
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4
(c) Only 3
(d) Only 1
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The exercise aimed to enhance mutual
cooperation, interoperability, and sharing of tactics between the special
forces of the two nations, focusing on counter-terrorism, high-altitude
warfare, and hostage rescue operations.
Hence, the Correct Answer is: (c) Only
3 — Kyrgyzstan
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2109604
Q.111) Which of the following Department prepares the National
Indicator Framework Progress Report related to Sustainable Development Goals in
Uttar Pradesh ?
1.
Department of Finance
2.
Department of
Education
3.
Department of Planning
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) Only 1
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Department of Planning in Uttar
Pradesh is responsible for preparing the National Indicator Framework (NIF)
Progress Report related to the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) at
the state level. This report aligns with the national framework developed by
the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) and tracks
progress across various SDG indicators using state-level data.
Q.112) With reference to ‘Isotopes’, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1.
Atoms with identical
atomic numbers but different atomic mass numbers are known as isotopes.
2. Protium, Deuterium and Tritium are isotopes of
carbon.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) Only 2
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Only 1
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have
the same atomic number (i.e., same number of protons) but
different mass numbers due to varying numbers of neutrons.
Example: Carbon-12 and Carbon-14 are isotopes
of carbon.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Protium (¹H),
Deuterium (²H), and Tritium (³H) are isotopes of hydrogen, not carbon. They have one proton each but differ in the
number of neutrons (0, 1, and 2 respectively).
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?iesc1=4-12 Page:
44.
Q.113) Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer
using the code given below the lists.
|
List – I (Schedule) |
List – II (Subject) |
|
A. 7th Schedule |
1. Languages |
|
B. 8th Schedule |
2. Disqualification on ground of defection |
|
C. 9th Schedule |
3. Union, State and Concurrent lists |
|
D. 10th Schedule |
4. Validation of certain
Acts/Regulations |
Code:
A
B
C D
(a)
3
1
2 4
(b)
3
1
4 2
(c)
2
3
4 1
(d)
4
2
1 3
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
2.
State List – Subjects
on which only State Legislatures can make laws (e.g. police, public health,
agriculture).
3.
Concurrent List –
Subjects on which both Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate (e.g.
education, forests, marriage).
·
When the Constitution
came into force in 1950, there were 14 languages
·
Over time, more
languages were added through constitutional amendments — today, there are 22
languages (including Hindi, Bengali, Tamil, Urdu, etc.).
·
Its purpose was to
protect certain land reform and agrarian laws from being
challenged in courts on the ground of violating Fundamental Rights.
·
It contains the Anti-Defection
Law, which provides for the disqualification of legislators on
the grounds of defection from one political party to another.
·
The law applies to
both Parliament and State Legislatures.
Hence, the Correct Answer is: (b) 3, 1, 4, 2
Source: Mastering Indian Polity by Forum IAS,
Chapter: 9, Appendices, Page: 533-576.
Q.114) Which of the following sites were obtained by the British
East India Company under the Treaty of Sugauli in 1816?
1.
Kathmandu
2.
Shimla
3.Ranikhet
4.
Nainital
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) Only 1
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
·
Kumaon and Garhwal
regions,
·
Terai (southern
lowlands), and
·
Parts of Sikkim.
As a result of this territorial cession:
·
Ranikhet and
Nainital, located in the Kumaon region, came under British control.
·
Kathmandu remained
within Nepal.
·
The British also
acquired sites for hill stations, such as Shimla and Mussoorie.
Hence, the correct answer is: (c) 2, 3
and 4
Source: A Brief History of Modern India
(Spectrum) by Rajiv Ahir, Chapter: 5, Expansion and Consolidation of British
Power in India, Page: 127
Q.115) “Swavalambini”, a women entrepreneurship programme for the
North-East is launched by which of the following ministries ?
1.
Ministry of Skill
Development and Entrepreneurship
2.
Ministry of Women and
Child Development
3.
Ministry of Micro,
Small and Medium Enterprises
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 1
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The Swavalambini women
entrepreneurship programme for the North-East was launched by the Ministry of
Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) in collaboration with
NITI Aayog.
Key Details:
·
Launched
by: Ministry of Skill
Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE)
·
Collaborators: NITI Aayog and Indian Institute of
Entrepreneurship (IIE), Guwahati
·
Target
Region: North-Eastern states
like Assam, Meghalaya, and Mizoram
·
Objective: To empower women in Higher Education
Institutions (HEIs) with entrepreneurial skills, mentorship, and resources
Neither the Ministry of Women and
Child Development nor the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium
Enterprises is involved in this initiative.
Hence, the correct answer is (d) Only 1.
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2100760
Q.116) Which of the following rivers fall into the Arabian Sea ?
1.
Periyar
2.
Pennar
3. Palar
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Option 1 is correct: Periyar River – It flows entirely within Kerala and drains
into the Arabian Sea near Kochi.
Option 2 is incorrect: Pennar River – It originates in the Nandi Hills
(Karnataka) and flows through Andhra Pradesh before emptying into the
Bay of Bengal.
Option 3 is incorrect: Palar River – It originates in Karnataka, flows
through Tamil Nadu, and also drains into the Bay of Bengal.
https://indiawris.gov.in/wiki/doku.php?id=pennar
Q.117) Arrange the following electromagnetic radiations in
decreasing order of their frequencies.
1.
Gamma rays
2.
Ultraviolet rays
3.
Radio waves
4.
X-rays
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) 1, 4, 3, 2
(b) 4, 1, 2, 3
(c) 1, 4, 2, 3
(d) 4, 1, 3, 2
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Electromagnetic radiations are arranged in
decreasing order of frequency as follows:
Gamma rays > X-rays > Ultraviolet rays
> Radio waves
Therefore, the Correct code is: (c) 1, 4, 2, 3
Q.118) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Food security is necessary even in
surplus food production years.
Reason (R): Starvation can still occur due to unequal distribution and
lack of accessibility.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Assertion (A) is true: Food security is necessary even in
surplus food production years.
This statement is true because food security
is not only about the total amount of food produced in a country but also about
ensuring that every person has physical, social, and economic access to
sufficient, safe, and nutritious food at all times.
Reason (R) is true: Reason (R): Starvation can
still occur due to unequal distribution and lack of accessibility.
This is also true and provides the correct
explanation for the assertion. Even when a country produces more than enough food,
sections of the population may face starvation or malnutrition if they lack
access—either because of poverty, poor distribution systems, or regional disparities.
Hence, the Correct Answer is: (d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
Source:https://www.ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/iess204.pdf
Q.119) With reference to ‘Vice-President of India’, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1.
The Vice-President is
the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
2. Vice-President is a member of the Rajya Sabha.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Only 1
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: As per Article 64 of the Constitution,
the Vice-President of India is ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
He presides over the Rajya Sabha but is not its member.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Vice-President
is not a member of either House of Parliament. If a person who is a member of either House is
elected Vice-President, he/she is deemed to have vacated that seat on the date of
election. (Article 66(3))
Source: Mastering Indian Polity by Forum IAS,
Chapter: 15, EXECUTIVE BRANCH, Page: 281.
Q.120) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): India’s success is critical for the
global success of Sustainable Development Goals.
Reason (R): India accounts for nearly one-sixth of the total world
population.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Assertion (A) is true: With its vast population and significant
developmental challenges in areas like poverty reduction, education, health,
gender equality, and climate action, India’s performance directly influences
the overall global progress toward achieving the SDGs. The UN has repeatedly
emphasized that “India’s success is key to the world’s success in achieving
the SDGs.”
Reason (R) is true: India accounts for nearly
one-sixth of the world’s population — about 17.8%, with an estimated 1.46 billion people in 2025 (UN
data, 2025). This makes India home to the largest share of humanity, meaning
any substantial improvement or setback here significantly affects global SDG
outcomes.
R explains A:
Because India represents such a large portion
of the global population, its progress or lack thereof in meeting SDG targets
substantially determines whether the world as a whole can achieve these goals.
Hence, R correctly explains A.
Hence, the correct answer is: (d) Both (A) and
(R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Source: https://india.un.org/en/sdgs
https://www.worldometers.info/world-population/india-population/
Q.121) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
using the code given below the lists.
|
List – I (Ruler) |
List – II (Dynasty) |
|
A. Mahendraverman First |
1. Rashtrakuta |
|
B. Kadungon |
2. Pallava |
|
C. Amoghavarsha |
3. Chola |
|
D. Rajaraja First |
4. Pandya |
Code:
A
B
C D
(a)
4
2
3 1
(b)
2
4
1 3
(c)
2
4
3 1
(d)
4
2
1 3
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
1. Mahendravarman I → Pallava (2)
Dynasty: Pallava
Reign: c. 600–630 CE
Notable Facts:
·
A great patron of art,
literature, and architecture.
·
Constructed early
rock-cut temples like Mandagapattu cave temple.
·
His reign marked the
beginning of Pallava architectural excellence that peaked under Narasimhavarman
I.
1. Kadungon → Pandya (4)
Dynasty: Pandya
Reign: 6th Century CE
Notable Facts:
·
Regarded as the
restorer of the Pandya dynasty after defeating the Kalabhras, who had disrupted
Tamil kingdoms.
·
Re-established Madurai
as the Pandya capital.
·
His rule marked the
beginning of the Second Pandyan Empire.
1.
Amoghavarsha
I → Rashtrakuta (1)
Dynasty: Rashtrakuta
Reign: c. 814–878 CE
Notable Facts:
·
One of the greatest
Rashtrakuta rulers, who ruled from Manyakheta (modern Malkhed, Karnataka).
·
He was known for his
patronage of culture and literature , and was author of Kavirajamarga, the
earliest known Kannada literary work.
1.
Rajaraja
I → Chola (3)
Dynasty: Chola
Reign: c. 985–1014 CE
Notable Facts:
·
Expanded the Chola
Empire through conquests in South India, Sri Lanka, and the Maldives.
·
He also built the
Brihadeshwara Temple at Thanjavur, a UNESCO World Heritage site.
Hence, the correct answer is: (b) 2 4 1 3
Source: Tamil Nadu New Scert, Class XI, Unit-
9- Cultural Development in South India, Page: 121, and Unit:11 – Later Cholas
and Pandyas, Page: 155.
Q.122) The Appiko Movement is associated with which of the
following Indian States ?
1.
Uttarakhand
2.
Uttar Pradesh
3.
Kerala
4. Karnataka
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) Only 1
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Appiko Movement (meaning
“to hug” in Kannada) began in 1983 in the Uttara Kannada district of
Karnataka.
It was inspired by the Chipko Movement of
Uttarakhand, but it originated independently in the Western Ghats region.
The movement aimed to stop deforestation,
preserve the forest ecosystem, and promote afforestation and sustainable forest
use.
Villagers hugged trees to prevent them from
being cut down, hence the name Appiko.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/keec107.pdf
Page: 121.
Q.123) Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana comes under which of the
following?
1.
Ministry of Corporate
Affairs
2.
Ministry of Rural
Development
3.
Ministry of Finance
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 1
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY)
was launched in 2015 and is implemented by the Ministry of Finance. It does
not fall under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs or the Ministry of Rural
Development
Under this scheme, loans up to ₹10 lakh are
provided to non-corporate, non-farm small/micro enterprises through Commercial
Banks, RRBs, Small Finance Banks, MFIs, and NBFCs.
The loans are given under MUDRA (Micro Units
Development and Refinance Agency Ltd.), which is a subsidiary of SIDBI under
the Ministry of Finance.
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2069170
https://www.myscheme.gov.in/schemes/pmmy
Q.124) Consider the following Election Reforma in India and
arrange them in correct chronological order starting from earliest to the last.
1.
Voters photo identity
card
2.
Electronic voting
machine
3.
Voter verifiable paper
audit trail
4.
NOTA
Select the correct answer from the code given
below
Code:
(a)2,1,3,4
(b) 1,2,4,3
(c) 1,2,3,4
(d) 2, 1, 4,3
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Chronological Order of Election Reforms:
1.
Electronic
voting machine (EVM) –
First used on a limited basis in 1982 in Kerala (by-election), but nationwide
introduction in phases began 1998–99, and were officially deployed nationwide
in the 2004 general elections.
2.
Voter’s
Photo Identity Card (EPIC) – Introduced in 1993 under the Election Commission’s initiative to
provide identification to voters.
3.
Voter
Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) – Introduced in August 2013 (first used in Noksen Assembly
Constituency by election in Nagaland), and gradually expanded to ensure
transparency in EVM voting.
4.
NOTA
(None of the Above) – Introduced in
September-October 2013, following a Supreme Court directive, allowing voters to
reject all candidates.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a) 2, 1,
3, 4
Source: https://www.eci.gov.in/eci-backend/public/uploads/monthly_2022_11/10386732_LegalHistoryofEVMsandVVPATs_pdf.a942a6ed2e36892f92adecb5e88f6d3d
Page: 2
https://www.newsonair.gov.in/evolution-of-voter-cards-in-india-from-epic-to-e-epic/
https://www.thehindu.com/children/why-was-nota-introduced/article68206943.ece
Q.125) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion
(A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Evaporation of sweat from human skin
dissipates body heat.
Reason (R): High humidity on a hot day increases discomfort.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is falae, but (R) is true
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Assertion (A) is true: Evaporation of sweat
from human skin dissipates body heat.
This is a fundamental principle of
thermoregulation. When sweat evaporates, it absorbs latent heat from the skin,
thereby cooling the body.
Reason (R) is true: High humidity on a hot day
increases discomfort.
High humidity reduces the rate of evaporation
of sweat because the air is already saturated with moisture. This means less
heat is removed from the body, making us feel hotter and more uncomfortable.
Link between A and R: High humidity interferes with the evaporation
process, which is the mechanism by which body heat is dissipated. So, R
directly explains why A becomes less effective under humid conditions.
Hence, both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A).
Source: https://www.weather.gov/media/pah/WeatherEducation/heatsafety.pdf
Q.126) BHARATPOL’, an online portal for International Police
Co-operation has been developed by which of the following?
1.
Central Bureau of
Investigation
2.
Research and Analysis
Wing
3.
Intelligence Bureau
4.
Enforcement
Directorate
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4
(c) Only 3
(d) Only 1
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
BHARATPOL Portal was launched by the Union Home Minister of
India on 07.01.2025. It is a New portal developed by Central Bureau of
Investigation (CBI). It aims to provide all Indian law enforcement
agencies with a seamless connection to Interpol; will help bring criminals to
justice even if they flee India; provides real-time interface and access to
Interpol databases.
CBI as National Central Bureau for INTERPOL in
India coordinates international police cooperation through INTERPOL.
Source:
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2117802
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2090659
Q.127) Consider the following events and arrange them in correct
chronological order.
1.
Acquisition of Awadh
by the British
2.
Ilbert Bill
Controversy
3.
Indigo Revolt
4.
Second Anglo-Afghan
War
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) 1, 3, 4, 2
(b) 3, 1, 2, 4
(c) 3, 1, 4, 2
(d) 1, 3, 2, 4
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
Option 1: Awadh was annexed by Lord Dalhousie
in 1856. Lord Dalhousie annexed
Awadh in 1856 after deposing Nawab Wajid Ali Shah on grounds of misgovernment.
Option 3: The Indigo Revolt started in Bengal
in 1859. It was a revolt
by the farmers against British planters who had forced them to grow indigo.
Option 4: In 1878-80, the second Anglo-Afghan
was fought. The British fought
this war to ensure that Afghanistan remained free from Russian interference.
The Treaty of Gandamak was signed as a result of the Second-Anglo Afghan War.
Option 2: The Ilbert Bill controversy occurred
during 1883-84. The bill sought to
abolish “judicial disqualification based on race distinctions” and to give the
Indian members of the covenant civil service the same powers and rights as
those enjoyed by their European colleagues. Ripon had to modify the bill
because of the stiff opposition from the European community.
Source:
https://indianculture.gov.in/digital-district-repository/district-repository/bransonism-bankim-chatterjee-ilbert-bill
https://www.egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/20313/1/Unit-11.pdf
https://www.nios.ac.in/media/documents/SecSocSciCour/English/Lesson-07.pdf
https://www.nam.ac.uk/explore/second-afghan-war
Q.128) As per the One District One Product (ODOP) scheme of
Uttar Pradesh, Moonj products are associated with which of the following
districts?
1.
Amethi
2.
Sultanpur
3. Sant Kabir Nagar
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) Only 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
Under One District One Product (ODOР) scheme,
Moonj products are associated with Amethi, Prayagraj and Sultanpur.
Amethi: Moonj is a naturally growing perennial grass, known as Sarpat
in the local dialect. Locals here make various types of decorative and
household products from Moonj such as foot mats, carry bags, stools, ropes, pen
stands, chairs, tables etc. The craftsmen make these products without using any
advanced equipment.
Sultanpur: Around 1.5 lakh people are engaged in working with
material made of moonj in the district. It is used for making a variety of
products including ropes, weaved cots, etc. Rope Weaved cots are ready to use
and give a remarkable traditional and ethnic look also. These cots are easily
portable, storable and durable.
Source:
https://v2.india.gov.in/explore-india/odop/details/moonj-products
https://odopup.in/en/article/amethi
Q.129) Which of the following Programmes/Schemes is/are NOT
included in meeting the objectives of National Education Policy 2020?
1.
ULLAS
2.
DIKSHA
3. Bharat Nirman Programme
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) Only 1
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Option 1 is incorrect. Understanding of
Lifelong Learning for All in Society (ULLAS) programme was launched in 2022 as
a key initiative under the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020. The programme has significantly expanded
educational opportunities for adult learners across India, with a special focus
on rural communities and women.
Option 2 is incorrect. DIKSHA (Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge
Sharing) is a national platform for school education. It is an initiative of
National Council for Educational Research and Training (NCERT), under the aegis
of the Ministry of Education (MoE), GoI. Launched in 2017, DIKSHA has been
adopted by almost all the States, Union Territories, central autonomous
bodies/boards including CBSE. NEP 2020 aims that appropriate existing
e-learning platforms such as SWAYAM, DIKSHA, will be extended to provide
teachers with a structured, user-friendly, rich set of assistive tools for
monitoring progress of learners. DIKSHA has been highlighted as an
integral part of NEP 2020 providing multiple provisions for inculcating and
promoting digital learning solutions.
Option 3 is correct. For improving
infrastructure and providing basic amenities to rural India, an ambitious
Bharat Nirman programme was launched in 2005-06. Under this unique project physical targets
were fixed in six core areas of infrastructure development to be implemented by
its terminal year i.e. 2009. The areas are: rural road connectivity,
accelerated irrigation benefit programme, rural drinking water supply, rural
housing, rural electrification and rural communication facilities.
Source:
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2175252
https://www.ndear.gov.in/diksha-infrastructure.html
https://www.pib.gov.in/newsite/erelcontent.aspx?relid=24929
Q.130) Iron dome missile defence system belongs to which of the
following countries?
1.
France
2.
United States of
America
3.
Israel
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 1
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Iron Dome is an air defence system of
Israel. Iron Dome is a
short-range anti-rocket, anti-mortar, and anti-artillery system with an
intercept range of 2.5 to 43 miles and was developed by Rafael Advanced
Defence Systems of Israel. Israel has at least 10 Iron Dome batteries
deployed throughout the country, each designed to defend a 60-square-mile
populated area and can be moved as threats change.
Source:
Q.131) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Voices of men and women are different.
Reason (R): Length and thickness of vocal cord is different in men and
women.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
Assertion is correct. It is true that the voices of men and
women are different. Women have a thin voice as compared to men’s
gruff voice and their voice-frequency is almost twice as high as that of men.
Reason is correct. The voices of men, women and children are
different due to the variation in vocal cords. In general, male vocal cords are
longer and thicker than female vocal cords. The length of the vocal cords of
men is 20 mm long. The length of vocal cords of women is about 15mm long.
Source:
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/66536/1/Unit13.pdf
Q.132) With reference to ‘Human Development Index’, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1.
The UNDP published its
first Human Development Report in 1990, which had a Human Development Index.
2.
The first team that
developed the Human Development Index was led by Mahbub-ul-Haq and S. Priesner.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below :
Code:
(a) Only 2
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Only 1
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Recently, the United Nations Development
Programme (UNDP) released its latest Human Development Report (HDR) titled “A
matter of choice: People and possibilities in the age of AI.”
Statement 1 is correct. Human Development
Reports (HDRs) have been released since 1990. The first Human Development
Report introduced its pioneering Human Development Index.
HDI is composite index that measures average
achievement in human development taking into account four indicators: life
expectancy at birth (Sustainable Development Goal 3); expected years of
schooling (SDG 4.3); mean years of schooling (SDG 4.4); and gross national
income (GNI) per capita (2017 PPP$) (SDG 8.5).
Statement 2 is incorrect. The first Human Development Index (HDI)
was developed by Pakistani economist Mahbub-ul-Haq in 1990, with contributions
from economist Amartya Sen.
Source:
https://hdr.undp.org/about/human-development
Q.133) Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly
matched?
1.
National Voters Day
(India) – 25 January
2.
Constitution Day (India)
– 27 January
3. Human Rights Day (World) – 29 January
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 1
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Option 1 is correctly matched. Since 2011, the
National Voters’ Day (NVD) has been celebrated on January 25 every year to mark the foundation day of the
Election Commission of India (ECI),which was established on this day in the
year 1950. The main purpose of the NVD celebration is to encourage, facilitate,
and maximize voter enrollment, especially the new voters.
Option 2 is incorrectly matched. Constitution
Day, also known as ‘Samvidhan Divas’, is celebrated in our country on 26th
November every year to
commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India. On 26th November 1949,
the Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution of India, which came
into effect from 26th January 1950.
Option 3 is incorrectly matched. Human Rights
Day is observed annually around the world on 10 December. It commemorates the anniversary of one
of the world’s most groundbreaking global pledges: the Universal Declaration of
Human Rights (UDHR).
Source:
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressNoteDetails.aspx?NoteId=151791&ModuleId=3
https://www.mygov.in/campaigns/constitution-day/
https://www.un.org/en/observances/human-rights-day
Q.134) Consider the following and arrange them in correct
chronological order.
1.
Food for work
programme
2.
Community Development
Programme
3.
Training for Rural
Youth for Self Employment (TRYSEM)
4. Drought Prone Area Programme
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) 4, 2, 3, 1
(b) 2, 4, 1, 3
(c) 2, 4, 3, 1
(d) 4, 2, 1, 3
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Option 2: The Community Development Programme
was inaugurated on
October 2, 1952.
Option 4: The Drought Prone Areas Programme
(DPAP) is one of the areas
development programmes launched by the Government in 1973-74.
Option 1: In 1977–1978, the Food for Work
Programme was launched. In accordance with this initiative, the government helped the
less fortunate do chores like building kutcha roads, removing debris, etc. in
exchange for food grains. After this scheme, the National Food for Work scheme
was renamed in 2001.
Option 3: Training of Rural Youth for
Self-Employment (TRYSEM) was initiated in 1979 to provide technical skills to the rural
youth of families below poverty line. The purpose was to enable them to become
self-employed. Later in 1987, the scope of the programme was extended to wage
employment for the trained beneficiaries. During the 7th plan, about 11.6 lakh
youth were trained under the TRYSEM.
Source:
https://eparlib.sansad.in/bitstream/123456789/432901/1/47328.pdf
https://www.csrxchange.gov.in/upload/doc/cc0e2feb1ea7117760e460e3fb411c96.pdf
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/59006/1/Unit5.pdf
Q.135) Who among the following resigned from the Viceroy’s
Executive Council, saddened by the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre?
1.
Chettur Sankaran Nair
2.
Ishwari Prasad
3.
Muhammad Shafi
4. Iqbal Narain Gurtu
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) 2 and 3
(b) Only 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) Only 1
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre occurred on
April 13, 1919. On April 13, 1919, Baisakhi day, a large crowd of people mostly
from neighbouring villages, unaware of the prohibitory orders in the city,
gathered in the Jallianwala Bagh. It was then that Brigadier- General Dyer
arrived on the scene with his men. The troops surrounded the gathering under
orders from General Dyer and blocked the only exit point and opened fire on the
unarmed crowd. No warning was issued, no instruction to disperse was given. An
unarmed gathering of men, women and children was fired upon as they tried to
flee.
Only Option 1 is correct. Chettur Sankaran Nair (11 July 1857 – 24
April 1934) was a lawyer and Judge.
As the sole Indian member of the Viceroy’s
Executive Council, Nair resigned in
1919 to protest the Jallianwala Bagh massacre, marking a significant moment in
India’s freedom struggle.
Source:
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2121591
Q.136) With reference to the New Pamban Bridge, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1.
It was constructed by
Rail Vikas Nigam Limited, which is a ‘Navratna’ public sector unit under the
Ministry of Railways.
2. It is India’s first vertical lift railway sea
bridge.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code:
(a) Only 2
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Only 1
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi inaugurated
the New Pamban Bridge on April 6th 2025.
Statement 1 is correct. The New Pamban Bridge
was constructed by Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL), a Navratna PSU under the Ministry of
Railways.
RVNL is a Navratna CPSE under the Ministry of Railways, Government of
India.
Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL), a Central
Public Sector Enterprises of the Ministry of Railways, was granted Navratna
Status in 2023.
RVNL was incorporated as PSU on 24th January,
2003, with the twin objectives of implementation of projects relating to
creation and augmentation of capacities of rail infrastructure on fast track
basis and raising of extra budgetary resources for SPV projects.
Statement 2 is correct. New Pamban Bridge is
India’s first vertical lift railway sea bridge. It is India’s first vertical lift railway sea
bridge, a 2.07-kilometre-long marvel spanning the Palk Strait in Tamil Nadu.
Blending heritage with innovation, the New Pamban Bridge not only preserves the
cultural and historical importance of the region but also marks a significant
leap forward in design, connectivity, and regional development.
Source:
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2118895
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1921776
Q.137) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Consumers can bargain below Maximum
Retail Price (MRP).
Reason (R): MRP is a price a seller must charge from the buyer.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Assertion is correct. Consumers can bargain
for prices below the Maximum Retail Price (MRP). The MRP is the highest price, inclusive of all
taxes, at which a product can be sold. Discounts can be offered at such prices.
Reason is incorrect. The maximum retail price
is the highest price at which a seller can sell a packaged product to consumers in India.
It is a legal cap, inclusive of all taxes;
printed, right on the packaging. It is illegal for retailers to undercut the
cap in a competitive market and illegal to charge even an additional Re 1.
Source:
https://www.cnbctv18.com/views/view-the-relevance-of-mrp-in-modern-india-7631721.htm
Q.138) Suez canal connects which of the following?
1.
Atlantic Ocean
2.
Red Sea
3.
Mediterranean Sea
4.
Indian Ocean
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
The Suez Canal is an artificial waterway
connecting the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea.
This canal was constructed in 1869 in Egypt
between Port Said in the north and Port
Suez in the south linking the Mediterranean
Sea and the Red Sea. It is a sea-level canal without locks which is about 160
km and 11 to 15 m deep. The canal separates the African continent from Asia,
and it provides the shortest maritime route between Europe and the lands lying
around the Indian and western Pacific oceans. It is one of the world’s most
heavily used shipping lanes.
Source:
NCERT Fundamentals of Human Geography Page 74
Q.139) With reference to Lifestyle for the Environment (LiFE),
which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.
It was launched in
June 2022.
2.
Its idea was proposed
at the COP 25 in Madrid, Spain.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) Only 2
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Only 1
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
Statement 1 is correct. The Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi launched
the ‘Lifestyle for the Environment – LiFE Movement’ on 5th June 2022.
It is an India-led global mass movement to
nudge individual and community action to protect and preserve the environment.
It aims to nudge individuals and communities to practice a lifestyle that is
synchronous with nature and does not harm it.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The initiative was proposed by him at
COP26. COP26 was held in Glasgow, United Kingdom.
LiFE was introduced by Prime Minister Narendra
Modi—at COP26 in Glasgow on 1 November 2021—as a mass movement for “mindful and
deliberate utilization, instead of mindless and destructive consumption”to
protect and preserve the environment.
Source:
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1831364
https://www.niti.gov.in/sites/default/files/2022-11/Mission_LiFE_Brochure.pdf
Q.140) With reference to World Bank and International Monetary
Fund, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.
The World Bank and
International Monetary Fund were set up together and are popularly known as
Bretton Wood Twins.
2. Headquarters of International Monetary Fund
and World Bank are located at Washington D.C. and New York respectively.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code:
(a) Only 2
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Only 1
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
Statement 1 is correct. The Bretton Woods
Institutions are the World Bank, and the International Monetary Fund
(IMF). The IMF and the World
Bank were created in July 1944 at an international conference in the United
States (in Bretton Woods, New Hampshire) that established a framework for
economic cooperation aimed at creating a more stable and prosperous global
economy.
The International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the
World Bank share a common goal of raising living standards in their member
countries. Their approaches to achieving this shared goal are complementary:
the IMF focuses on macroeconomic and financial stability while the World Bank
concentrates on long-term economic development and poverty reduction.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The International Monetary Fund is
headquartered at Washington D.C. in the United States. The World Bank
is also headquartered in Washington, D.C., United States.
Source:
https://www.worldbank.org/en/archive/history/exhibits/Bretton-Woods-and-the-Birth-of-the-World-Bank
Q.141) With reference to the ‘Joint Sitting of Parliament’, which
of the following statements is/are correct?
1.
Article 109 of the
Constitution of India provides for the Joint Sitting of Parliament.
2.
A Joint Sitting of
Parliament may be called to pass a Constitution Amendment Bill.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below!
Code:
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Only 1
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Joint sitting is an extraordinary machinery
provided by the Constitution to resolve a deadlock between the two Houses over
the passage of a bill.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 108 of the
Constitution of India provides for the Joint Sitting of Parliament.
It says that:
If after a Bill has been passed by one House
and transmitted to the other House-
(a) the Bill is rejected by the other House;
or
(b) the Houses have finally disagreed as to
the amendments to be made in the Bill; or
(c) more than six months elapse from the date
of the reception of the Bill by the other House without the Bill being passed
by it,
the President may notify the Houses his
intention to summon them to meet in a joint sitting for the purpose of
deliberating and voting on the Bill.
Statement 2 is incorrect. A Joint Sitting of
Parliament cannot be called to pass a Constitution Amendment Bill or a Money
Bill. The provision of joint
sitting is applicable to ordinary bills or financial bills only and not
to money bills or Constitutional amendment bills.
Source:
Indian Polity by M.Laxmikant Sixth Edition
Chapter 22
Q.142) Match List – I with List – II and select the correct
answer from the code given below the lists.
|
List – I (Sustainable Development Goals) |
List – II (Area of Goal) |
|
A. Goal 1 |
1. Clean water and
sanitation |
|
B. Goal 3 |
2. Quality education |
|
C. Goal 4 |
3. To end poverty in
all forms |
|
D. Goal 6 |
4. Good health and
well-being |
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 3 2 1
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
List I (A) matches List II (3): Goal 1 of SDG
2030 is to end poverty in all forms.
List I (B) matches List II (4): Goal 3 of SDG
2030 is Good health and Well-being.
List I (C) matches List II (2): Goal 4 of SDG
2030 is Quality Education.
List I (D) matches List II (1): Goal 6 of SDG
2030 is Clean Water and Sanitation
Source: https://sdgs.un.org/goals
Q.143) With reference to ‘Operation Olivia’, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1.
It is an initiative of
Indian coast Guards to protect Olive Ridley turtles along the coast of Odisha.
2. Operation Olivia is carried out during the
month of August which is the nesting time of Olive Ridley turtles.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) Only 2
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Only 1
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
Statement 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect:
Every year, the Indian Coast Guard’s “Operation Olivia”, initiated in the early
1980s, helps protect Olive Ridley turtles as they congregate along the Odisha
coast for breeding and nesting from November to December.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/chennai/annual-olive-ridley-nesting-season-begins-along-chennai-coast/article67737935.ece#:~:text=While%20the%20famed%20mass%20nesting,peak%20season%20for%20turtle%20nesting
Q.144) Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched?
(Biosphere
Reserve)
(State)
1.
Nokrek Manipur
2.
Manas Assam
3. Agasthyamalai Kerala
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 1
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: The Nokrek
Biosphere Reserve is
located in the northeast of India on the Tura Range, which forms part of the
Meghalaya Plateau (average altitude: 600 metres). It is located in the
Garo hills which are part of Meghalaya and not Manipur.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Manas Biosphere
Reserve is located in Assam.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Agashyamalai
Biosphere Reserve is located in Kerala.
Source: https://www.unesco.org/en/mab/nokrek
https://indianculture.gov.in/node/2537419
https://forest.kerala.gov.in/en/biosphere-reserves/
https://whc.unesco.org/en/list/338/
Q.145) With reference to Global Environment Facility, which of
the following statements is/are correct?
1.
It was established in
1991.
2. Only the developed countries are donors to it.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code:
(a) Only 2
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Only 1
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
Statement 1 is correct: The Global Environment
Facility (GEF) was established in October 1991 and restructured after the 1992 Rio Earth
Summit to fund projects in developing countries that protect the global
environment and promote environmentally sustainable development. The GEF serves
as a financial mechanism for multiple multilateral environmental agreements,
including the UNFCCC, thereby supporting the implementation of the Paris
Agreement.
Statement 2 is incorrect: GEF funding is provided by participating donor
countries and made available to developing countries and countries with
economies in transition to meet the objectives of international environmental
conventions and agreements. It is not that only the developed countries can
be its donors.
Source: https://www.thegef.org/newsroom/news/gef-how-it-all-began
https://www.thegef.org/who-we-are/funding
Q.146) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Directive Principles are important for
economic, social and political functions in a Modern Democratic State.
Reason (R): The core objectives of Directive Principles is to
establish economic and social democracy.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The Directive Principles of State Policy are
enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51.
Assertion is correct. The phrase ‘Directive Principles of State
Policy’ denotes the ideals that the State should keep in mind while formulating
policies and enacting laws. The Directive Principles constitute a very
comprehensive economic, social and political programme for a modern democratic
State. They aim at realising the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality
and fraternity as outlined in the Preamble to the Constitution. They embody the
concept of a ‘welfare state’ and not that of a ‘police state’, which existed
during the colonial era.
Reason is correct. The Directive Principles
seek to establish economic and social democracy in the country. These principles reflect the ideology of
socialism. They lay down the framework of a democratic socialist state, aim at
providing social and economic justice, and set the path towards welfare state.
For instance, Article 38 of the Constitution
clearly says that “The State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people
by securing and protecting as effectively as it may a social order in which justice,
social, economic and political, shall inform all the institutions of the
national life.”
Source:
https://www.mea.gov.in/images/pdf1/part4.pdf
https://blog.ipleaders.in/directive-principles-state-policy/
Q.147) Who among the following introduced the concept of
entitlements in food security ?
1.
M. S. Swaminathan
2.
Atul Pranay
3.
Samali Srikant
4.
Amartya Sen
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) Only 1
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
The concept of entitlements in food security
was introduced by Amartya Sen.
Food security means availability,
accessibility and affordability of food to all people at all times. In the
1970s, food security was understood as the “availability at all times of
adequate supply of basic foodstuffs”. Amartya Sen added a new dimension
to food security and emphasised the “access” to food through what he called
‘entitlements’ — a combination of what one can produce, exchange in
the market alongwith state or other socially provided supplies.
Accordingly, there has been a substantial
shift in the understanding of food security. The 1995 World Food Summit
declared, “Food security at the individual, household, regional, national and
global levels exists when all people, at all times, have physical and economic
access to sufficient, safe and nutritious food to meet their dietary needs and
food preferences for an active and healthy life”.
Source:
https://www.ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/iess204.pdf
Q.148) With reference to Jnanpith Award, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1.
The 58th Jnanpith
Award was conferred upon Sanskrit Scholar Jagadguru Rambhadracharya Ji.
2. The 1st Jnanpith Award was given in 1965.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below :
Code:
(a) Only 2
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Only 1
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Statement 1 is correct: The President conferred the 58th
Jnanpith Award for the year 2023 upon Sanskrit scholar Jagadguru
Rambhadracharya and renowned poet-lyricist Gulzar.
Statement 2 is correct: The first Jnanpith
Award was given to the
Malayalam poet G. Sankara Kurup in 1965 for his collection of
poems, Odakkuzhal (The Bamboo Flute).
Source: https://www.jnanpith.net/award.html?id=3&title=jnanpith
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2129148
Q.149) Arrange the following in chronological order of their rule
and select the correct answer from the code given below.
1.
Bajirao I
2.
Balaji Bajirao
3.
Balaji Vishwanath
4. Madhav Rao I
Code:
(a) 1, 3, 2, 4
(b) 3, 1, 4, 2
(c) 3, 1, 2, 4
(d) 1, 3, 4, 2
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Personality 3: Balaji Vishwanath was
appointed as Peshwa in the year 1713.
Personality 1: Baji Rao I was the peshwa between 1720 and 1740.
Personality 2: In 1737, Baji Rao defeated the Mughals
on the outskirts of Delhi, and brought much of the former Mughal territories
south of Delhi under Maratha control. Baji Rao’s son, Balaji Baji Rao (popularly
known as Nana Saheb), further increased the territory under Maratha control by
invading Punjab in 1758.
Personality 4: After the battle of Panipat in 1761, for
the next 10 years Madhav Rao is credited with the revival of the Maratha.
Source: https://panipat.gov.in/third-battle/
https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/SrSec315NEW/315_History_Eng/315_History_Eng_Lesson15.pdf
Tamil Nadu SCERT Class 11th
Q.150) Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched ?
(Railway
Zone)
(Headquarter)
1.
Northern Railway New
Delhi
2.
North Eastern Railway
Gorakhpur
3. South Eastern Railway Cuttack
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 3
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) Only 1
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
Pair 1 is correct: The headquarters of
Northern Railway is Baroda House, New Delhi.
Pair 2 is correct: The headquarters of North
Eastern Railway is Gorakhpur
Pair 3 is incorrect: The headquarters of South
Eastern Railway is Garden Reach Kolkata.
Source:
https://indianrailways.gov.in/railwayboard/view_section.jsp?lang=0&id=0,1,304,366,533,1007,1012
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