Suryavanshi IAS

Saturday, March 29, 2025

Earthquake

1. Earthquake Measurement and Magnitude

Which scale is commonly used to measure the magnitude of earthquakes, including the 7.7-magnitude earthquake in Myanmar?

(a) Mercalli Scale
(b) Richter Scale
(c) Beaufort Scale
(d) Kelvin Scale

Explanation:

Earthquake magnitude is generally measured using the Richter Scale or the Moment Magnitude Scale (Mw).
The Richter Scale is a logarithmic scale that quantifies the energy released during an earthquake.
The Mercalli Scale measures earthquake intensity based on observed effects, not magnitude.
The earthquake in Myanmar was reported as 7.7-magnitude using this scientific measurement.
Thus, the correct answer is (b) Richter Scale.

2. Geographical Location and Tectonic Activity

The earthquake that struck Myanmar originated near Mandalay. Which of the following tectonic plates is primarily responsible for seismic activity in this region?

(a) Eurasian Plate
(b) Indo-Australian Plate
(c) Pacific Plate
(d) Arabian Plate

Explanation:

Myanmar is located at the collision zone between the Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate.
This region is part of the Alpide Belt, a major seismic zone.
The Indo-Australian Plate subducts beneath the Eurasian Plate, causing frequent earthquakes.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a) Eurasian Plate.

3. Humanitarian Response and International Aid

In the aftermath of the earthquake, the junta chief of Myanmar requested international aid. Which of the following international organizations is most likely to provide immediate disaster relief?

United Nations Office for the Coordination of Humanitarian Affairs (UNOCHA)
International Federation of Red Cross and Red Crescent Societies (IFRC)
World Trade Organization (WTO)
Médecins Sans Frontières (Doctors Without Borders)

Select the correct answer using the codes below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, and 4 only
(d) 1, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

UNOCHA coordinates international humanitarian relief efforts during natural disasters.
IFRC provides on-ground assistance such as emergency medical care, food, and shelter.
Médecins Sans Frontières (MSF) offers medical support, especially in war-torn and disaster-affected regions.
The WTO focuses on global trade and has no direct role in disaster relief.
Thus, the correct answer is (c) 1, 2, and 4 only.

4. Civil-Military Administration in Disaster Response

During natural disasters like the Myanmar earthquake, the declaration of a “state of emergency” typically empowers which of the following authorities to lead the response?

(a) Judiciary
(b) Legislature
(c) Executive and Military Administration
(d) National Human Rights Commission

Explanation:

A state of emergency allows the executive and military authorities to assume greater powers for disaster management.
This may include mobilizing resources, implementing curfews, or requesting international aid.
In Myanmar, the military junta under Senior Gen. Min Aung Hlaing took charge of the response.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c) Executive and Military Administration.

5. Earthquake Impact and Structural Vulnerability

Which of the following factors can increase the damage caused by earthquakes, as observed in the Myanmar and Thailand disaster?

Poor construction standards
Proximity to the epicenter
Depth of the earthquake
Efficient early warning systems

Select the correct answer using the codes below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2, and 3 only
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only
(d) All of the above

Explanation:

Poor construction standards increase the risk of building collapse, as seen in the 30-storey building collapse in Thailand.
Proximity to the epicenter results in stronger ground shaking. Mandalay, being near the epicenter, suffered significant damage.
Depth of the earthquake affects the intensity felt on the surface. A shallow earthquake like this one (7.7-magnitude) typically causes more damage.
Although early warning systems reduce casualties by allowing people to evacuate, in this case, their effectiveness was limited.
Thus, the correct answer is (b) 1, 2, and 3 only.

6. Plate Tectonics and Earthquake Causes

The primary cause of the 7.7-magnitude earthquake in Myanmar is related to which of the following geological phenomena?

(a) Volcanic eruption
(b) Plate subduction
(c) Fault movement along a transform boundary
(d) Isostatic rebound

Explanation:

The earthquake near Mandalay occurred due to the convergence of the Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate.
This region experiences subduction, where the Indian Plate is forced beneath the Eurasian Plate, causing stress accumulation and seismic activity.
Subduction zones are often responsible for powerful earthquakes.
Thus, the correct answer is (b) Plate subduction.

7. Types of Plate Boundaries and Earthquake Generation

Which type of plate boundary is most commonly associated with large-magnitude earthquakes like the one in Myanmar?

(a) Convergent boundary
(b) Divergent boundary
(c) Transform boundary
(d) Passive boundary

Explanation:

Convergent boundaries are regions where two tectonic plates collide, often leading to subduction and intense earthquakes.
Myanmar lies near a convergent boundary where the Indian Plate is colliding with the Eurasian Plate.
Divergent boundaries create mid-ocean ridges, and transform boundaries lead to lateral movement with smaller earthquakes.
Thus, the correct answer is (a) Convergent boundary.

8. Seismic Zones and Earthquake Risk

Myanmar is part of which major seismic belt known for its frequent earthquake activity?

(a) Mid-Atlantic Ridge
(b) Alpide Belt
(c) Circum-Pacific Belt
(d) East African Rift System

Explanation:

The Alpide Belt is the second most seismically active belt in the world, extending from the Mediterranean region to Southeast Asia, including Myanmar.
It is formed by the collision of the African, Arabian, and Indian Plates with the Eurasian Plate.
The Circum-Pacific Belt is the most active seismic zone, but it primarily affects regions bordering the Pacific Ocean.
Thus, the correct answer is (b) Alpide Belt.

9. Depth and Magnitude of Earthquakes

The magnitude and impact of an earthquake are often influenced by its focal depth. Based on this, which type of earthquake is generally the most destructive?

(a) Shallow-focus earthquake (0-70 km)
(b) Intermediate-focus earthquake (70-300 km)
(c) Deep-focus earthquake (300-700 km)
(d) Submarine earthquake with no surface rupture

Explanation:

Shallow-focus earthquakes occur at depths less than 70 km and are the most destructive due to their proximity to the Earth’s surface.
The Myanmar earthquake, with its magnitude of 7.7 and significant damage, was a shallow-focus earthquake.
Deep-focus earthquakes are less likely to cause surface damage.
Thus, the correct answer is (a) Shallow-focus earthquake (0-70 km).

10. Role of Faults in Earthquake Generation

The earthquake in Myanmar is most likely associated with which type of fault?

(a) Normal fault
(b) Reverse fault
(c) Strike-slip fault
(d) Thrust fault

Explanation:

In a subduction zone like the one near Myanmar, earthquakes are often caused by thrust faults or reverse faults, where one plate is forced above another.
Thrust faults are common at convergent boundaries, leading to large earthquakes.
Normal faults are associated with divergent boundaries, and strike-slip faults occur at transform boundaries.
Thus, the correct answer is (d) Thrust fault.

Thursday, March 27, 2025

CAG and BISAG-N Geospatial Audit Collaboration

India's Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) has partnered with the Bhaskaracharya National Institute of Space Applications and Geo-informatics (BISAG-N) through a signed memorandum of understanding. This collaboration aims to bolster CAG's auditing capabilities by incorporating BISAG-N's expertise in geospatial technology. CAG Chief K. Sanjay Murthy emphasized that this alliance will not only improve audit processes with advanced tools but also highlight the technological strengths of public sector organizations. The agreement will allow CAG to leverage BISAG-N's geo-spatial consultancy services for enhanced efficiency.

Key Concepts:
Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG): The supreme audit institution of India, responsible for auditing the accounts of the Union government and state governments.

Bhaskaracharya National Institute of Space Applications and Geo-informatics (BISAG-N): A national institute in Gujarat focused on leveraging space technology and geo-informatics for various applications.

Memorandum of Understanding (MoU): A formal agreement between two or more parties to signify their intention to work together on a common goal.

Geospatial Technology: Technology that deals with the acquisition, management, analysis, and visualization of data that has a geographic component. This includes tools like GIS (Geographic Information Systems), remote sensing, and GPS (Global Positioning Systems).

Audit Capabilities: The ability of an auditing body to effectively and efficiently conduct audits, including the scope, methods, and tools used.

Public Institutions: Organizations that are owned and operated by the government or serve a public purpose.

Geo-spatial Consultancy Services: Expert advice and support related to the application of geospatial technology.

Cutting-edge Tools and Techniques: The most advanced and innovative instruments and methods available in a particular field (in this case, geospatial technology).

1. Consider the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG):

The CAG is appointed by the President of India.
The CAG is responsible for auditing the accounts of the Union and State governments.
The CAG has the authority to conduct a judicial review of financial policies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The CAG is appointed by the President under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution.
Statement 2 is correct. The CAG audits the accounts of the Union and State governments, public sector undertakings, and other authorities as mandated by the Constitution.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The CAG does not have judicial review powers. It performs an audit function, not a legal adjudication.
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

2. Bhaskaracharya National Institute of Space Applications and Geo-informatics (BISAG-N) is primarily known for:

(a) Agricultural research
(b) Geo-spatial technology and remote sensing applications
(c) Defence research and development
(d) Climate change monitoring

Explanation:
BISAG-N, located in Gujarat, specializes in providing services related to geo-spatial technology, remote sensing, and GIS applications. It offers consultancy and technical support to various government departments.
Answer: (b) Geo-spatial technology and remote sensing applications

3. What is the primary objective of the Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) between the CAG and BISAG-N?

(a) To promote agricultural innovations using space technology
(b) To enhance audit processes through geo-spatial consultancy services
(c) To establish a satellite communication network for CAG offices
(d) To provide training in space science to audit officers

Explanation:
The partnership between CAG and BISAG-N aims to improve the audit capabilities of the CAG using geo-spatial technology. This will allow for more precise and effective auditing using advanced data analysis and satellite imagery.
Answer: (b) To enhance audit processes through geo-spatial consultancy services

4. The CAG’s auditing functions are aligned with which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?

(a) Article 110
(b) Article 112
(c) Article 148
(d) Article 280

Explanation:
The CAG of India derives its authority from Article 148 of the Indian Constitution. The duties and powers are further detailed in Articles 149 to 151.
Answer: (c) Article 148

5. Which of the following best describes geo-spatial technology?

(a) A branch of physics focusing on gravitational forces
(b) Technology used to analyze geographical data using remote sensing and GIS
(c) A medical imaging technology used for brain scans
(d) A financial modeling tool used for predicting stock market trends

Explanation:
Geo-spatial technology involves tools and techniques like remote sensing, GIS (Geographic Information Systems), and GPS (Global Positioning System) to gather, analyze, and visualize geographical data. It is widely used in urban planning, disaster management, and environmental monitoring.
Answer: (b) Technology used to analyze geographical data using remote sensing and GIS

Wednesday, March 26, 2025

SC considers question of timeline for Speakers to decide on defections

SC considers question of timeline for Speakers to decide on defections.

The Supreme Court is examining whether it possesses the authority to mandate a specific timeframe for Speakers of legislative assemblies to resolve defection petitions under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution. This inquiry arose from petitions filed by Bharat Rashtra Samithi leaders concerning the delayed decisions by the Telangana Assembly Speaker on disqualification proceedings against MLAs who switched to the Congress party. Previously, the apex court had only suggested that Speakers resolve these matters within a "reasonable time," without defining that period. The court questioned whether constitutional bodies are powerless to direct Speakers to fulfill their constitutional duties regarding such petitions. Arguments presented to the court highlighted concerns about potential political bias influencing Speakers' decisions and the practice of delaying rulings until the end of a House's term. The petitioners' counsel argued that while courts cannot impede a Speaker's power, they can instruct the timely exercise of this constitutional authority, even suggesting a four-week deadline for these decisions.

Anti-Defection Law (Tenth Schedule): Constitutional provisions aimed at preventing political defections by elected legislators.
Disqualification Petitions: Formal requests filed with the Speaker seeking the removal of a legislator from their seat based on alleged defection.
Speaker of the Legislature: The presiding officer of a legislative assembly, who also acts as a quasi-judicial authority in matters of defection.
Quasi-Judicial Tribunal: An entity, like the Speaker in defection cases, that has powers and procedures resembling those of a court of law but is not part of the judicial branch.
Judicial Review: The power of the courts to examine the actions of the legislative and executive branches (and quasi-judicial bodies) to determine their constitutionality.
Constitutional Mandate: The duties and responsibilities explicitly outlined in the Constitution for a particular office or authority.
Reasonable Time: A duration that is fair and appropriate under the given circumstances, a concept that the Supreme Court has previously used regarding the Speaker's decision on defection petitions.
Political Partisanship: Bias or favoritism shown towards a particular political party or ideology.

Some Important Questions.

1. Consider the following statements regarding the Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution:

The Tenth Schedule was added to the Constitution by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985.
It deals with the disqualification of Members of Parliament (MPs) and Members of Legislative Assemblies (MLAs) on the grounds of defection.
The decision of the Speaker on disqualification petitions is subject to judicial review by the courts.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:

The Tenth Schedule was introduced through the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 to address the issue of political defections.
It provides for the disqualification of MPs and MLAs on the grounds of defection.
While the Speaker acts as a quasi-judicial authority in deciding disqualification petitions, the decision is subject to judicial review as established by the Supreme Court in the Kihoto Hollohan case (1992).

2. The concept of judicial review in the context of disqualification under the Tenth Schedule implies:

(a) Courts can directly disqualify a member without referring to the Speaker.
(b) Courts can direct the Speaker to decide on disqualification petitions within a specified period.
(c) Courts cannot interfere in the Speaker’s decision.
(d) Courts can only suggest guidelines to the Speaker without imposing a deadline.

Answer: (b) Courts can direct the Speaker to decide on disqualification petitions within a specified period.
Explanation:

The Supreme Court has the authority of judicial review to ensure that the Speaker acts in accordance with the Constitution.
While courts cannot directly disqualify members, they can ensure the Speaker exercises their powers within a reasonable timeframe, maintaining constitutional accountability.

3. In the context of the Indian Constitution, which of the following correctly describes the Speaker’s role under the Tenth Schedule?

(a) The Speaker functions as an independent constitutional authority with no accountability to the judiciary.
(b) The Speaker performs a quasi-judicial role while deciding disqualification petitions under the Tenth Schedule.
(c) The Speaker’s decision is final and cannot be challenged in court.
(d) The Speaker acts as the head of the ruling party in the Assembly when making decisions on disqualification.

Answer: (b) The Speaker performs a quasi-judicial role while deciding disqualification petitions under the Tenth Schedule.
Explanation:

The Speaker acts as a quasi-judicial authority while deciding on disqualification petitions under the Tenth Schedule.
Their decision is not final and is subject to judicial review under Article 226 and Article 32 of the Constitution.

4. Consider the following statements regarding the role of the Speaker in the Indian parliamentary system:

The Speaker is elected by the members of the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
The Speaker’s decisions on disqualification under the Tenth Schedule are immune from judicial scrutiny.
The Speaker has the discretion to delay decisions on disqualification petitions indefinitely.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:

The Speaker is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha (or State Legislative Assembly in the case of states).
While the Speaker has authority over disqualification decisions under the Tenth Schedule, those decisions are subject to judicial review.
The Speaker cannot indefinitely delay disqualification decisions as courts can intervene to ensure the petitions are decided within a reasonable timeframe.

5. Which of the following cases is considered a landmark judgment concerning judicial review of the Speaker's decision under the Tenth Schedule?

(a) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
(b) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(c) Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu
(d) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

Answer: (c) Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu
Explanation:

The Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu case (1992) upheld the constitutional validity of the Tenth Schedule.
The Supreme Court ruled that the decision of the Speaker is subject to judicial review to ensure that the process of disqualification adheres to constitutional principles.

Tuesday, March 25, 2025

SC Collegium System. Questions for IAS Prelims exam 2025 .

1. With reference to the Supreme Court Collegium, consider the following statements:

The Supreme Court Collegium is responsible for the appointment and transfer of judges in the Supreme Court and High Courts.
The Collegium consists of the Chief Justice of India and four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court.
The recommendations of the Collegium are binding on the President of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer:

Statement 1 is correct. The Supreme Court Collegium is responsible for recommending the appointment, transfer, and elevation of judges to the Supreme Court and High Courts.
Statement 2 is correct. The Collegium is composed of the Chief Justice of India (CJI) and the four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court.
Statement 3 is incorrect. While the President appoints judges based on the Collegium's recommendation, the recommendations are not constitutionally binding. However, the government usually adheres to them unless they are returned with specific objections.
Correct Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

2. Regarding the transfer of High Court judges, consider the following points:

The President of India has the sole authority to transfer High Court judges without consultation.
The Supreme Court Collegium’s recommendations for transfer are made to ensure better administration of justice.
A High Court judge can be transferred to another High Court only with their consent.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer:

Statement 1 is incorrect. The President acts on the advice of the Supreme Court Collegium and must consult the Chief Justice of India for the transfer of High Court judges.
Statement 2 is correct. Transfers are often recommended by the Collegium to ensure the integrity of the judiciary and better administration of justice, especially in cases involving conflict of interest or allegations.
Statement 3 is incorrect. A judge's consent is not required for a transfer under Article 222 of the Constitution. However, they are generally consulted.
Correct Answer: (b) 2 only

Qustions On "What are DNA polymorphisms and how do they differentiate between people?"

1. Consider the following statements regarding DNA Polymorphisms:

DNA polymorphisms are used to differentiate individuals from one another.
DNA polymorphisms occur due to errors in DNA replication.
DNA polymorphisms are found only in the non-coding regions of DNA.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. DNA polymorphisms are genetic variations that differentiate individuals.
Statement 2 is correct. They often occur due to mutations in DNA replication.
Statement 3 is incorrect. DNA polymorphisms can occur in both coding and non-coding regions, although they are more common in non-coding regions.
Correct Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

2. With reference to Short Tandem Repeats (STRs), consider the following statements:

STRs are short sequences of DNA base pairs that are repeated multiple times.
STRs are highly polymorphic and vary among individuals.
STRs are used in forensic science for DNA fingerprinting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Explanation:

All three statements are correct. STRs are short, repeated sequences of DNA base pairs. Due to their polymorphic nature, they differ among individuals and are widely used in forensic investigations for DNA fingerprinting.
Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2, and 3

3. Consider the following statements about Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR):

PCR is used to amplify specific DNA segments.
Taq polymerase is commonly used in PCR because it can withstand high temperatures.
PCR is a technique primarily used for sequencing the entire genome of an individual.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. PCR is used to amplify or make multiple copies of specific DNA segments.
Statement 2 is correct. Taq polymerase, derived from a thermophilic bacterium, remains stable at high temperatures used in PCR.
Statement 3 is incorrect. PCR is not typically used to sequence entire genomes. Instead, it is used to amplify target regions of DNA.
Correct Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

4. Which of the following best describes the term 'DNA Fingerprint'?

(a) A unique sequence of DNA base pairs in an individual’s genome.
(b) A pattern of short tandem repeats (STRs) unique to an individual.
(c) The entire genome of an individual mapped for identification purposes.
(d) A genetic record of mutations within an individual’s DNA.

Explanation:

DNA fingerprinting involves analyzing specific STR patterns that vary between individuals. This makes it a powerful tool for identification purposes.
Correct Answer: (b) A pattern of short tandem repeats (STRs) unique to an individual.

5. Which of the following are possible applications of DNA fingerprinting?

Establishing parent-child relationships.
Identifying victims of disasters.
Detecting genetic diseases.
Solving criminal cases.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, and 3 only
(b) 1, 2, and 4 only
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Explanation:

DNA fingerprinting is widely used for parentage testing, criminal investigations, and identifying disaster victims. However, detecting genetic diseases usually involves other genetic tests like whole-genome sequencing or specific genetic assays.
Correct Answer: (b) 1, 2, and 4 only

6. Consider the following pairs:

Term	Description
1. DNA Polymorphism	Variation in DNA sequence among individuals
2. Short Tandem Repeats (STRs)	Repeated DNA sequences used for DNA profiling
3. Polymerase Chain Reaction	A technique to amplify DNA segments
4. Capillary Electrophoresis	A method to sequence an entire genome

Which of the pairs are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2, and 3 only
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Explanation:

Pair 1 is correct. DNA polymorphisms are variations in DNA sequences that help in identifying individuals.
Pair 2 is correct. STRs are repeated sequences used for DNA fingerprinting.
Pair 3 is correct. PCR is used to amplify specific DNA segments.
Pair 4 is incorrect. Capillary electrophoresis is not used for sequencing entire genomes; it is mainly used to analyze DNA fragments like STRs.
Correct Answer: (b) 1, 2, and 3 only

7. With reference to DNA fingerprinting, consider the following statements:

DNA fingerprinting is based on analyzing single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) only.
It can be used to identify individuals as well as their ancestry.
DNA fingerprinting cannot be performed if the DNA sample is partially degraded.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. DNA fingerprinting mainly uses Short Tandem Repeats (STRs) instead of SNPs.
Statement 2 is correct. DNA fingerprinting is used to identify individuals and trace ancestry.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Even degraded DNA can sometimes be analyzed using PCR amplification.
Correct Answer: (b) 2 only

8. Which of the following factors can affect the accuracy of DNA fingerprinting?

Contamination of the sample.
Number of STR markers used in the analysis.
Use of degraded DNA for analysis.
Presence of identical twins in the population.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2, and 3 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Explanation:

All the factors mentioned affect DNA fingerprinting.
Contamination can introduce foreign DNA.
Using more STR markers improves the accuracy.
Degraded DNA may yield incomplete results.
Identical twins have identical DNA fingerprints, complicating differentiation.
Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

9. Consider the following statements regarding the use of DNA in forensic investigations:

DNA samples from different tissues of the same person will have different DNA fingerprints.
Capillary electrophoresis separates DNA fragments based on their size.
PCR amplification is essential for DNA fingerprinting even when large DNA samples are available.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. DNA from different tissues (e.g., blood, saliva, or bones) of the same person has identical DNA fingerprints.
Statement 2 is correct. Capillary electrophoresis is used to separate DNA fragments based on size.
Statement 3 is correct. PCR is used to amplify DNA, even when a sample is large, to ensure accurate and efficient analysis.
Correct Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

10. DNA extracted from human remains is often used in ancient DNA studies. Which of the following factors are important for the successful extraction of ancient DNA?

Age of the sample.
Environmental conditions of the burial site.
The presence of microbial contamination.
The extent of DNA degradation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Explanation:

All the factors mentioned play a role in DNA extraction.
DNA degrades over time, so older samples are harder to analyze.
Cooler and dry environments preserve DNA better.
Microbial contamination accelerates DNA degradation.
Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4