UPSC Prelims Practice Set – 27 August 2025
🟦
Section A: Polity & Governance (5 Qs)
Q1. Under Article 200 of the
Constitution, the Governor of a State may:
- Give
assent to a Bill.
- Withhold
assent to a Bill.
- Return
a non-Money Bill with a message.
- Reserve
a Bill for President’s consideration.
Which of the above are correct?
- (a)
1, 2 and 3 only
- (b)
1, 2 and 4 only
- (c)
1, 3 and 4 only
- (d)
1, 2, 3 and 4
✅ Answer:
(d)
📝 Explanation: Article
200 provides all four options. However, Money Bills cannot be returned.
The SC recently highlighted the issue of indefinite gubernatorial delays.
Q2. Consider the following:
- Governor
must act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers in all cases.
- Governor
has no discretionary powers under the Constitution.
Which is/are correct?
- (a)
1 only
- (b)
2 only
- (c)
Both 1 and 2
- (d)
Neither 1 nor 2
✅ Answer:
(d)
📝 Explanation:
Article 163 provides discretionary powers (e.g., reservation of Bills, judgment
in hung assembly). Governor generally acts on advice but not “in all cases.”
Q3. Money Bills in States:
- (a)
Can be withheld by the Governor
- (b)
Must be reserved for President
- (c)
Cannot be returned once passed by Assembly
- (d)
Can be introduced in either House of State Legislature
✅ Answer:
(c)
📝 Explanation:
Governor cannot return Money Bills (Art. 200 read with Art. 110-like provisions
for States).
Q4. Which of the following is/are
true about Counselling for NEET UG admissions?
- Conducted
by NMC at the national level.
- At
the state level, it is conducted by designated state authorities.
- Reservation
rules of the respective State apply for state quota seats.
- (a)
1 and 2 only
- (b)
2 and 3 only
- (c)
1 and 3 only
- (d)
1, 2 and 3
✅ Answer:
(d)
📝 Explanation:
NMC regulates; MCC handles AIQ seats; State bodies like BCECEB in Bihar manage
state seats with local reservation rules.
Q5. The term Cooperative
Federalism is best reflected in which of the following?
- (a)
Governor’s assent to Money Bills
- (b)
Centre–State GST Council decisions
- (c)
Judicial review of Bills
- (d)
State quotas in NEET admissions
✅ Answer:
(b)
📝 Explanation:
GST Council is cited as a model of cooperative federalism.
🟩
Section B: Economy & International Trade (5 Qs)
Q6. The recent U.S. tariff hike
on India is justified by the U.S. under:
- (a)
WTO Safeguard clause
- (b)
National Security Exception
- (c)
Balance-of-Payment clause
- (d)
Most-Favoured-Nation principle
✅ Answer:
(b)
📝 Explanation:
U.S. invoked “national security” to impose unilateral tariffs citing Russian
oil trade.
Q7. Which sector is least
affected by the new U.S. tariffs?
- (a)
Ready-made garments
- (b)
Leather products
- (c)
Electronics and semiconductors
- (d)
Gems and jewellery
✅ Answer:
(c)
📝 Explanation:
Electronics/semiconductors are exempt.
Q8. “Atmanirbhar Bharat”
responses to tariff shocks may include:
- GST
rate rationalisation.
- Export
credit schemes.
- Domestic
production-linked incentives.
- Expanding
WTO Appellate Body jurisdiction.
- (a)
1, 2 and 3 only
- (b)
2 and 4 only
- (c)
1, 3 and 4 only
- (d)
1, 2, 3 and 4
✅ Answer:
(a)
📝 Explanation:
WTO appellate reforms are multilateral, not unilateral tools for India.
Q9. Consider the following
effects of tariff hikes:
- Currency
depreciation pressure.
- Fall
in stock indices.
- Boost
in export competitiveness.
Which are correct?
- (a)
1 and 2 only
- (b)
2 and 3 only
- (c)
1 and 3 only
- (d)
1, 2 and 3
✅ Answer:
(a)
📝 Explanation:
Tariffs reduce competitiveness, so 3 is incorrect.
Q10. CRISIL report projects which
impact on the Indian ready-made garment sector?
- (a)
Exports to double due to diversification
- (b)
Revenue growth to halve year-on-year
- (c)
Revenue growth unaffected
- (d)
Sector shifting completely to EU markets
✅ Answer:
(b)
📝 Explanation:
CRISIL projected halving of YoY revenue growth due to tariff burden.
🟥
Section C: Environment & Disaster Management (5 Qs)
Q11. IMD Yellow Alert implies:
- (a)
“No warning”
- (b)
“Be aware”
- (c)
“Be prepared”
- (d)
“Take action”
✅ Answer:
(b)
📝 Explanation:
Yellow = watch/be aware; Orange = prepared; Red = take action.
Q12. Kerala districts are under
weather alerts during which major festival this week?
- (a)
Pongal
- (b)
Ganesh Chaturthi
- (c)
Onam
- (d)
Vishu
✅ Answer:
(c)
📝 Explanation:
Kerala IMD alerts coincide with Onam celebrations.
Q13. Rough seas along Odisha coast
today are due to:
- (a)
Western Disturbance
- (b)
Depression over Bay of Bengal
- (c)
Jet stream activity
- (d)
El Niño Modoki
✅ Answer:
(b)
📝 Explanation: Depression/low
pressure in NW Bay triggers coastal rough sea conditions.
Q14. Floodplain zoning in India is
legally under:
- (a)
Environment Protection Act, 1986
- (b)
River Boards Act, 1956
- (c)
Disaster Management Act, 2005
- (d)
None explicitly at national level
✅ Answer:
(d)
📝 Explanation:
India lacks a national floodplain zoning law; some states attempted zoning.
Q15. NDRF comes under the
administrative control of:
- (a)
Ministry of Home Affairs
- (b)
Ministry of Defence
- (c)
Ministry of Environment
- (d)
PMO directly
✅ Answer:
(a)
📝 Explanation:
NDRF is under NDMA/MHA.
🟨
Section D: Science & Tech / Health / Defense (5 Qs)
Q16. “Mission Sudarshan Chakra”
aims to:
- (a)
Develop an Indian version of Iron Dome
- (b)
Create indigenous nuclear submarine fleet
- (c)
Build AI-based agriculture sensors
- (d)
Launch human spaceflight in 2035
✅ Answer:
(a)
📝 Explanation: Anti-air,
cyber-defense and precision strike mission likened to Iron Dome.
Q17. “One Health” approach refers
to integration of:
- (a)
Human, animal, and environmental health
- (b)
PHC, CHC, and tertiary care
- (c)
Traditional medicine and modern medicine
- (d)
Bioeconomy with fintech
✅ Answer:
(a)
📝 Explanation: It
integrates zoonoses surveillance with human-animal-environment systems.
Q18. Steering committee for One
Health Mission includes:
- (a)
NITI Aayog, DBT, ICMR, DAHD
- (b)
RBI, SEBI, IRDAI
- (c)
Defence Ministry only
- (d)
Only MoHFW
✅ Answer:
(a)
📝 Explanation: It
is inter-ministerial with DBT, ICMR, DAHD, MoHFW.
Q19. India’s major zoonotic
disease concern under One Health:
- (a)
Malaria
- (b)
Tuberculosis
- (c)
Nipah virus
- (d)
Dengue
✅ Answer:
(c)
📝 Explanation:
Nipah is a bat-borne zoonosis, monitored under One Health.
Q20. Defence Research &
Development Organisation (DRDO) is under:
- (a)
Ministry of Home Affairs
- (b)
Ministry of Defence
- (c)
PMO
- (d)
NITI Aayog
✅ Answer:
(b)
📝 Explanation:
DRDO reports to MoD.
🟪
Section E: Culture & Society (5 Qs)
Q21. Ganesh Chaturthi is primarily
associated with:
- (a)
Lord Vishnu
- (b)
Lord Shiva
- (c)
Lord Ganesha
- (d)
Goddess Lakshmi
✅ Answer:
(c)
Q22. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
popularised Ganesh Chaturthi in:
- (a)
Maharashtra
- (b)
Gujarat
- (c)
Tamil Nadu
- (d)
Uttar Pradesh
✅ Answer:
(a)
📝 Explanation:
Tilak used it as a tool for social unity during colonial rule.
Q23. Miss Universe India 2025
winner will represent India in which country?
- (a)
Japan
- (b)
USA
- (c)
Thailand
- (d)
Indonesia
✅ Answer:
(c)
📝 Explanation:
74th Miss Universe pageant will be held in Thailand.
Q24. RBI declares holidays for
banks under which law?
- (a)
RBI Act, 1934
- (b)
Banking Regulation Act, 1949
- (c)
Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
- (d)
Companies Act, 2013
✅ Answer:
(c)
📝 Explanation:
RBI notifies holidays under Negotiable Instruments Act.
Q25. “Ganeshotsav” is usually
celebrated for how many days in Maharashtra?
- (a)
1 day
- (b)
5 days
- (c)
10 days
- (d)
15 days
✅ Answer:
(c)
📝 Explanation:
Traditional Ganesh Chaturthi festival lasts 10 days, culminating in Visarjan.
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