Suryavanshi IAS: UPSC Prelims 2025 Answer with explanation GS

UPSC Prelims 2025 Answer Key GS Paper 1 – UPSC Prelims 2025 Solution GS Paper 1

Question 1. Consider the following types of vehicles:

I. Full battery electric vehicles

II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles

III. Fuel Cell electric hybrid vehicles

How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer – (c) All the three

Explanation –

Alternative powertrain vehicles are those that do not rely solely on conventional internal combustion engines running on petrol or diesel. All three types listed fall under this category:

Full Battery Electric Vehicles (BEVs) – Powered entirely by electric motors and batteries, with zero tailpipe emissions.

Hydrogen Fuel Cell Vehicles (FCEVs) – Generate electricity on board using hydrogen fuel cells and power electric motors, emitting only water vapor.

Fuel Cell Electric Hybrid Vehicles – Combine a hydrogen fuel cell system with a small battery (for energy recovery and temporary storage), also classifying them as alternative vehicles.

Thus, all three are alternative powertrain vehicles using non-conventional energy sources.

Question 2. With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements:

I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.

II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.

III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer – (d) None

Explanation –

Let’s evaluate each statement:

Statement I – All types of UAVs can do vertical landing:

Incorrect. Only specific UAV types like VTOL (Vertical Take-Off and Landing) drones (e.g., quadcopters, some hybrid drones) can perform vertical landing. Fixed-wing drones, which resemble airplanes, require runways or catapult systems and cannot land vertically.

Statement II – All types of UAVs can do automated hovering:

Incorrect. Only multirotor UAVs and some hybrid VTOL drones are capable of hovering. Fixed-wing UAVs cannot hover because they need forward motion to generate lift.

Statement III – All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply:

Incorrect. While small and medium UAVs commonly use batteries (Li-ion, Li-Po), many larger UAVs use gasoline, diesel, hybrid engines, or solar power for extended endurance and payload capabilities.

Thus, none of the statements are fully correct, but one could argue Statement III is partially applicable to many UAVs.

Question 3. In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements:

I. Cobalt

II. Graphite

III. Lithium

IV. Nickel

How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All the four

Answer – (c) Only three

Explanation –

Let’s examine which elements are used in the cathode of electric vehicle (EV) batteries:

Cobalt – Yes, used in the cathode of lithium-ion batteries (e.g., NMC, NCA types).

Graphite – No, graphite is used in the anode, not the cathode.

Lithium – Yes, lithium is a fundamental part of lithium-based cathode materials (like lithium cobalt oxide, lithium nickel manganese cobalt oxide).

Nickel – Yes, nickel is used in high-energy density cathodes like NMC (Nickel-Manganese-Cobalt) and NCA (Nickel-Cobalt-Aluminium).

Conclusion:

Cobalt, Lithium, and Nickel – used in cathode

Graphite – used in anode

Answer: (c) Only three

Question 4. Consider the following:

I. Cigarette butts

II. Eyeglass lenses

III. Car tyres

How many of them contain plastic?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer – (c) All the three

Explanation –

All three items listed contain plastic components:

Cigarette Butts – The filters in cigarette butts are made of cellulose acetate, a type of plastic that is not biodegradable and persists in the environment for years.

Eyeglass Lenses – Most modern eyeglass lenses are made from lightweight polycarbonate or CR-39 plastic, not glass.

Car Tyres – While tyres contain rubber, they also contain synthetic polymers (like styrene-butadiene rubber) which are forms of plastic to improve durability, heat resistance, and performance.

Hence, all three contain plastic.

Question 5. Consider the following substances:

I. Ethanol

II. Nitroglycerine

III. Urea

Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer – (b) Only two

Explanation –

Coal gasification is a process in which coal is converted into syngas (a mixture of carbon monoxide, hydrogen, and CO₂). This syngas can be further processed to produce a variety of chemicals and fuels.

Let’s analyze each option:

Ethanol –

Yes. Syngas from coal gasification can be used to produce ethanol via fermentation using genetically engineered microbes or catalytic conversion.

Nitroglycerine –

No. Nitroglycerine is made from glycerol and nitric acid, not from syngas or coal-based inputs. Coal gasification does not contribute directly to nitroglycerine production.

Urea –

Yes. Urea is synthesized from ammonia (NH₃) and carbon dioxide (CO₂). Ammonia is produced via the Haber-Bosch process, which can use hydrogen from syngas (from coal gasification). Hence, coal gasification can indirectly contribute to urea production.

Correct: Ethanol and Urea – 2 substances

Answer: (b) Only two

UPSC Prelims 2025 Answer Key GS Paper 1

Question 6. What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX, and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?

(a) These are alternatives to hydro-fluorocarbon refrigerants

(b) These are explosives in military weapons

(d) These fuels are propulsion for rocket

Answer – (b) These are explosives in military weapons

Explanation –

CL-20 (Hexanitrohexaazaisowurtzitane) – One of the most powerful non-nuclear explosives known, developed as a potential replacement for RDX and HMX in military use.

HMX (High Melting eXplosive) – A powerful nitroamine high explosive widely used in military applications (e.g., in detonators, rocket boosters).

LLM-105 (2,6-diamino-3,5-dinitropyrazine-1-oxide) – A newer, less sensitive high explosive developed for military use, offering high performance with reduced impact sensitivity.

These substances are categorized as high-energy explosives used in military-grade weapons and systems, including missiles, warheads, and other armaments.

Answer: (b) These are explosives in military weapons

Question 7. Consider the following statements:

I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing.

II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS).

III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer – (c) I and III only

Explanation –

Let’s evaluate each statement:

I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing.

This statement is correct. Microsoft recently (February 2025) announced the Majorana 1 chip, which they describe as “the world’s first Quantum Processing Unit (QPU) powered by a Topological Core.” They expect this chip to enable quantum computers capable of solving complex problems in a shorter timeframe by leveraging topological qubits, which are inherently more stable and less prone to errors.

II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS).

This statement is incorrect. The Majorana 1 chip was introduced by Microsoft, not Amazon Web Services (AWS). AWS has also been active in quantum computing and recently unveiled their own quantum chip prototype called “Ocelot.”

III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.

This statement is correct. Artificial intelligence (AI) is the broader field. Machine learning (ML) is a subset of AI, where algorithms learn from data to make predictions or decisions without being explicitly programmed. Deep learning (DL) is a specialized subset of machine learning that uses artificial neural networks with multiple layers (hence “deep”) to learn complex patterns from large datasets.

Therefore, statements I and III are correct.

The final answer is

Question 8. With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements:

I. They are man-made proteins.

II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens.

III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer – (d) I, II and III

Explanation –

Statement I – Correct

Monoclonal antibodies are man-made proteins engineered in laboratories to mimic the immune system’s ability to fight off harmful pathogens such as viruses and bacteria.

Statement II – Correct

These antibodies are designed to bind to specific antigens (proteins found on the surface of pathogens or abnormal cells), thereby stimulating or enhancing the body’s immune response.

Statement III – Correct

Monoclonal antibodies have been developed and used in the treatment of several viral infections, including COVID-19 and Nipah virus. For example, m102.4 is a monoclonal antibody used experimentally for Nipah virus treatment.

All three statements are correct

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Question 9. Consider the following statements:

I. No virus can survive in ocean waters.

II. No virus can infect bacteria.

III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer – (d) None

Explanation –

Let’s analyze each statement:

Statement I – “No virus can survive in ocean waters” – Incorrect

Viruses do exist and survive in ocean waters. In fact, marine viruses are extremely abundant in the oceans — especially bacteriophages that infect marine bacteria and regulate ecological cycles.

Statement II – “No virus can infect bacteria” – Incorrect

This is incorrect. Viruses that infect bacteria are called bacteriophages or phages. They are among the most studied viruses and are crucial in molecular biology and biotechnology.

Statement III – “No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells” – Incorrect

Many viruses, including retroviruses like HIV, alter the host cell’s transcriptional machinery to produce viral proteins and replicate themselves. This is a fundamental aspect of how viruses hijack host cells.

All three statements are incorrect

Answer: (d) None

Question 10. Consider the following statements:

Statement I:

Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.

Statement II:

Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.

Statement III:

Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer – (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Explanation –

Statement I highlights the usefulness of activated carbon in pollution control and remediation.

Statement II explains why activated carbon is effective: its large surface area and adsorptive power allow it to bind pollutants like heavy metals.

Statement III adds that activated carbon can be made from waste materials rich in carbon (e.g., coconut shells, sawdust, agricultural waste), making it sustainable and cost-effective.

Both II and III are correct, and both support Statement I by explaining its efficacy and practicality.

Correct Answer: (a)

UPSC Prelims Paper 1 solution

UPSC Prelims 2025 Answer Key GS Paper 1

Question 11. Consider the following statements:

Statement I:

Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from the cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions.

Statement II:

Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement.

Statement III:

Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer – (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Explanation –

Statement I – Correct. Cement manufacturing is responsible for about 7–8% of global CO₂ emissions, primarily due to chemical reactions and energy consumption during clinker production.

Statement II – Correct. During cement production, silica-bearing clay is indeed mixed with limestone, forming the raw mix that is heated to make clinker.

Statement III – Correct. Limestone (CaCO₃) undergoes thermal decomposition into lime (CaO) and releases CO₂, a key source of emissions in the cement industry:

CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂↑

Among the two, only Statement III directly explains Statement I, because it identifies the process (decarbonation of limestone) responsible for a major portion of CO₂ emissions in cement production.

Therefore, both statements are factually correct, but only Statement III explains Statement I.

Correct Answer: (b)

Question 12. Consider the following statements:

Statement I:

At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the ‘Declaration on Climate and Health’.

Statement II:

The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize the health sector.

Statement III:

If India’s health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer – (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Explanation –

Let’s analyze each statement in the context of the COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health and India’s position.

Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the ‘Declaration on Climate and Health’.

This statement is correct. Reports from COP28 confirm that India, along with the United States, did not sign the ‘Declaration on Climate and Health’. India expressed concerns, particularly regarding the feasibility of reducing greenhouse gas emissions for cooling within its healthcare infrastructure, citing the need for cooling for vaccines and medicines to ensure healthcare resilience.

Statement II: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize the health sector.

This statement is incorrect. The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is explicitly stated as a voluntary, non-binding political declaration. Its purpose is to galvanize support and commitment for action on climate change and health, not to impose legally binding obligations. While it encourages steps to reduce emissions and waste in the health sector, it does not make decarbonization mandatory.

Statement III: If India’s health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised.

This statement is correct, and it aligns with India’s stated reasons for not signing the declaration. India’s concern was that a rapid and stringent commitment to decarbonize certain aspects of its health sector, particularly cooling systems essential for vaccines and medical supplies, could potentially hinder its ability to meet the growing demands for medical services, especially in remote and underserved areas. They emphasized the need to balance climate goals with Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), including universal health coverage.

Relationship between the statements:

Statement I (India refrained from signing) is accurate.

Statement II (binding declaration) is incorrect.

Statement III (decarbonization compromising resilience) is accurate and directly explains why India refrained from signing (Statement I). India’s concern was that committing to certain decarbonization measures, especially regarding cooling, might negatively impact the resilience and accessibility of its healthcare system, given its unique developmental stage and healthcare challenges.

Therefore, Statement I and Statement III are correct, and Statement III provides an explanation for Statement I. Statement II is incorrect.

The final answer is

Question 13. Consider the following statements:

Statement I:

Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth’s rotation and axis.

Statement II:

Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth’s outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy.

Statement III:

As the Earth’s polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer – (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Explanation –

Statement I – Correct. Recent scientific studies, including from NASA, show that the Earth’s rotational axis is shifting, a phenomenon known as polar wander.

Statement II – Correct, but does not explain Statement I.

While solar flares and coronal mass ejections do impact Earth’s upper atmosphere and geomagnetic environment, they do not significantly influence Earth’s axial tilt or rotation.

Statement III – Correct and explains Statement I.

As polar ice melts due to climate change, the resulting redistribution of mass (water moving from poles toward the equator) leads to changes in Earth’s moment of inertia, thereby altering its rotation and causing the axis to shift.

Therefore, Statement III directly explains (or contributes significantly to explaining) Statement I, as it describes a key mechanism for changes in Earth’s mass distribution that affect its rotation and axis. Statement II is a correct physical phenomenon but does not explain Statement I.

The final answer is

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Question 14. Consider the following statements:

Statement I:

Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change.

Statement II:

Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets.

Statement III:

Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer – (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Explanation –

Statement I – Correct.

Article 6 is one of the most debated provisions in global climate talks. It deals with cooperative approaches to achieving nationally determined contributions (NDCs) and includes mechanisms for both market and non-market approaches to promote sustainable development.

Statement II – Correct.

Article 6 lays down the framework for carbon markets, including:

Article 6.2: Bilateral carbon trading through Internationally Transferred Mitigation Outcomes (ITMOs)

Article 6.4: A global carbon market mechanism similar to the Clean Development Mechanism under the Kyoto Protocol.

Statement III – Correct.

Article 6.8 underlines non-market approaches (NMAs) to assist Parties in achieving their NDCs through cooperation that does not involve carbon trading, such as capacity-building, technology transfer, and sustainable development strategies.

Both II and III are accurate and explain why Article 6 is central to international climate and sustainability discussions.

Correct Answer: (a)

Question 15. Which one of the following launched the Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific?

(a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)

(b) The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)

(d) The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

Answer – (a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)

Explanation –

The Asian Development Bank (ADB) launched the Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific in 2023 to promote investment in nature-based solutions (NbS). The initiative supports projects aimed at climate resilience, biodiversity conservation, and sustainable development, by channeling financial resources towards ecosystem-based solutions.

The hub is designed to:

Mobilize private sector investment in nature-based infrastructure

Provide technical assistance

Promote policy dialogue among stakeholders in the region

Hence, the correct answer is: (a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB).

UPSC Prelims 2025 Answer Key GS Paper 1

Question 16. With reference to Direct Air Capture (DAC), an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration.

II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing.

III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) I and II only

(b) II only

(d) None of the above statements is correct

Answer: (c) I, II and III

Explanation:

Statement I is correct: Direct Air Capture (DAC) is a method of carbon sequestration, where CO₂ is captured directly from the atmosphere and either stored underground or utilized. It’s seen as a key technology in reaching net-zero emissions.

Statement II is correct: Captured CO₂ can be used industrially, including in the production of plastics, carbonated beverages, and some food processing applications (e.g., greenhouse enhancement, food packaging gases).

Statement III is correct: In the aviation sector, captured CO₂ can be combined with green hydrogen to produce synthetic fuels (e-fuels), which are considered a promising form of low-carbon fuel.

Hence, all three statements are correct.

Correct answer: (c) I, II and III.

Question 17. Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements:

I. It is an omnivorous crustacean.

II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas.

III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) I and III

(d) II and III

Answer – (d) II and III

Explanation –

Statement I – Incorrect

The Peacock tarantula (Poecilotheria metallica) is not a crustacean. It is a species of spider, specifically an arboreal tarantula. Also, it is not omnivorous — it primarily feeds on insects and other small arthropods, making it carnivorous.

Statement II – Correct

The Gooty tarantula is endemic to a small forested region near Gooty in Andhra Pradesh, India. Its natural habitat is extremely restricted and under threat due to deforestation.

Statement III – Correct

It is an arboreal species, meaning it lives in trees in its natural habitat. It builds its web in tree holes and crevices.

Correct statements: II and III only

Answer: (d) II and III

Question 18. Consider the following statements:

I. Carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions in India are less than 0.5 ton per capita.

II. In terms of CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region.

III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO₂ emissions in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and III only

(b) II only

(d) I, II and III

Answer – (c) II and III only

Explanation –

Statement I – Incorrect

India’s per capita CO₂ emissions are more than 0.5 ton. As per recent data (e.g., from the IEA and Global Carbon Atlas), India’s per capita emissions are approximately 1.9–2.0 tons, though still lower than the global average. Therefore, this statement is factually incorrect.

Statement II – Correct

India ranks second in the Asia-Pacific region (after China) in terms of CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, due to its growing energy needs and population.

Statement III – Correct

In India, electricity and heat production (mainly from coal-fired power plants) is the largest source of CO₂ emissions, making this statement correct.

Correct statements: II and III only

Correct Answer: (c) II and III only

Question 19. Consider the following pairs:

Plant: Description

Cassava: Woody shrub

Ginger: Herb with pseudostem

Malabar spinach: Herbaceous climber

Mint: Annual shrub

Papaya: Woody shrub

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(d) All the five

Answer – (b) Only three

Explanation –

Let’s evaluate each pair:

Cassava – Woody shrub Correct

Cassava (Manihot esculenta) is a woody shrub native to South America, cultivated for its starchy tuberous root.

Ginger – Herb with pseudostem Correct

Ginger (Zingiber officinale) is a herbaceous plant, and its above-ground part is a pseudostem formed by leaf sheaths.

Malabar spinach – Herbaceous climber Correct

Malabar spinach (Basella alba) is a fast-growing, soft-stemmed vine, correctly described as a herbaceous climber.

Mint – Annual shrub Incorrect

Mint (Mentha species) is not an annual shrub. It is a perennial herb, not woody like a shrub, and spreads vigorously via runners.

Papaya – Woody shrub Inorrect

papaya is not a woody shrub. It’s a large, herbaceous plant that is often mistaken for a tree due to its single, tall, and unbranched trunk. While it can grow quite tall, its stem remains soft and green, and it doesn’t develop true bark like a woody shrub or tree.

Correctly matched: 1, 2, 3,

Correct Answer: (b) Only three

Question 20. With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements:

I. Rainforests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans.

II. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of the world’s oxygen.

III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II only

(d) None of the above statements is correct

Answer – (b) II only

Explanation –

Statement I – Incorrect

Though rainforests like the Amazon produce a lot of oxygen, the majority (~50–80%) of Earth’s oxygen actually comes from marine sources, especially phytoplankton and cyanobacteria. So, oceans are the largest oxygen producers, not rainforests.

Statement II – Correct

It is scientifically established that marine phytoplankton, algae, and photosynthetic bacteria contribute to around 50–70% of global oxygen production through photosynthesis.

Statement III – Incorrect

Well-oxygenated surface water does not contain more oxygen than atmospheric air. In fact, the concentration of dissolved oxygen in water is much lower than oxygen concentration in air.

Air contains ~21% oxygen (~210,000 ppm),

While oxygen saturation in water is ~8–14 mg/L (parts per million), which is much less.

Only Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: (b) II only

UPSC Prelims 2025 Answer Key GS Paper 1 – UPSC Prelims Paper 1 solution

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UPSC Mains Question Paper (2013 – 2024)

Question 21. Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy:

He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East.

He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Raja Ram Mohan Roy was a visionary reformer who successfully blended Indian traditions with Western progressive ideals:

Statement 1 is correct: He had a deep appreciation for traditional Indian philosophical systems, especially the Upanishads and Vedanta, which he considered as rational and spiritually profound. He translated and published many of these texts to promote a rational understanding of Indian heritage.

Statement 2 is also correct: He was heavily influenced by Enlightenment thought and advocated for a rational, scientific outlook, human dignity, freedom of thought, and social equality, including the abolition of Sati and promotion of women’s rights.

Thus, both statements correctly reflect his ideology and reformist outlook.

Question 22. Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme:

Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth

Observance of strict non-violence

Retention of titles and honours without using them in public

Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes

How many of the above were parts of the Non-Cooperation Programme?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All the four

Answer: (c) Only three

Explanation:

The Non-Cooperation Movement (1920–22) launched under Mahatma Gandhi’s leadership had several specific objectives and methods. Let’s evaluate each statement:

Boycott of law courts and foreign cloth – Yes, this was a key part of the movement to undermine British institutions and promote indigenous alternatives (Khadi and Indian arbitration).

Observance of strict non-violence – Yes, Gandhi emphasized non-violence as the core principle of the movement.

Retention of titles and honours without using them in public – Incorrect. The programme demanded surrender of titles and honours like “Sir” and “Rai Bahadur” conferred by the British, not just non-usage.

Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes – Yes, this was encouraged to create parallel institutions that replaced British-controlled legal and administrative systems.

So, only 3 of the 4 statements were part of the official programme.

Hence, the correct answer is: (c) Only three.

Question 23. The irrigation device called “Arghatta” was:

(a) A water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley

(b) A large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes

(d) A large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand

Answer: (b) A large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes

Explanation:

The Arghatta was an ancient Indian irrigation device used to lift water from wells and was particularly prevalent in northern India. It consisted of a large wooden wheel, rotated either by hand or by animals. Earthen pots (or other containers) were tied to the outer rim of the wheel, and as the wheel turned, the pots would dip into the well, fill with water, and then pour it into a channel as they rotated upward and overturned.

This device is an example of early mechanical irrigation technology used before modern pumps.

Thus, option (b) correctly describes the Arghatta irrigation device.

Question 24. Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles Mattavilasa, Gunabhara, and Vichitrachitta?

(a) Mahendravarman I

(b) Simhavishnu

(d) Simhavarman

Answer: (a) Mahendravarman I

Explanation:

Mahendravarman I (r. c. 600–630 CE) was a Pallava ruler who was not only a patron of art and architecture but also a talented artist and playwright himself.

He assumed several unique titles:

Mattavilasa – meaning “lover of intoxication”, associated with his Sanskrit play Mattavilasa Prahasana, a satirical work.

Gunabhara – meaning “possessor of virtues” or “one rich in qualities”.

Vichitrachitta – meaning “curious-minded” or “of varied thoughts”, highlighting his creativity and artistic pursuits.

He was a pioneer of rock-cut architecture in South India and laid the foundations of Pallava art that reached its zenith under his son Narasimhavarman I.

Hence, the correct answer is: (a) Mahendravarman I.

Question 25. Fa-Hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of:

(a) Samudragupta

(b) Chandragupta II

(d) Skandagupta

Answer: (b) Chandragupta II

Explanation:

Fa-Hien (also spelled Faxian or Pa-hien) was a Chinese Buddhist monk who visited India between 399–414 CE to collect Buddhist scriptures and study at Indian monastic institutions. His travel account provides important insights into Gupta India.

He came during the reign of Chandragupta II (c. 380–415 CE), one of the most powerful rulers of the Gupta Empire.

Fa-Hien visited important Buddhist sites like Kapilavastu, Lumbini, Sarnath, and Kushinagar.

He described the administration, society, and religious life of the time, noting that people led simple lives and criminal punishments were mild.

Thus, the correct answer is: (b) Chandragupta II.

UPSC Prelims 2025 Answer Key GS Paper 1

Question 26. Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime state which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?

(a) Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta)

(b) Prataparudra (Kakatiya)

(d) Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala)

Answer: (c) Rajendra I (Chola)

Explanation:

Rajendra Chola I, the son of Rajaraja Chola I, was one of the most powerful rulers of the Chola dynasty.

In 1025 CE, he launched a naval expedition against the Srivijaya Empire, a dominant maritime kingdom controlling trade routes across the Strait of Malacca and the Malay Archipelago.

The campaign was successful and demonstrated the Cholas’ naval capabilities. Rajendra I’s forces captured strategic cities such as Kedah, Tambralinga, and parts of Sumatra.

This was a rare instance of trans-oceanic Indian military expedition, and it significantly boosted Indian influence in Southeast Asia.

Hence, the correct answer is: (c) Rajendra I (Chola).

Question 27. With reference to ancient India (500–322 BCE), consider the following pairs:

Territorial Region: River Flowing in the Region

Asmaka: Godavari

Kamboja: Beas

Avanti: Mahanadi

Kosala: Sarayu

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All the four

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

Let’s examine each pair from the perspective of ancient India (500–322 BCE), corresponding roughly to the Mahajanapada period and the rise of the Mauryas.

Asmaka – Godavari:

Asmaka (or Assaka) was one of the sixteen Mahajanapadas. It was located on the banks of the river Godavari in the Deccan region.

Correctly matched.

Kamboja – Beas:

Kamboja was a Mahajanapada located in the northwestern part of the Indian subcontinent, often associated with areas in modern Afghanistan and parts of Pakistan.

The Beas River flows through Punjab in India and Pakistan. The region of Kamboja was far to the northwest of the Beas. Its geographical location often placed it in proximity to rivers like the Oxus (Amu Darya) or other rivers in the Gandhara region, but not the Beas.

Incorrectly matched.

Avanti – Mahanadi:

Avanti was a prominent Mahajanapada, with its capital at Ujjain (modern Ujjain, Madhya Pradesh).

The Mahanadi River flows through central and eastern India, primarily Odisha and Chhattisgarh. The region of Avanti was in western-central India, far from the Mahanadi. The major river associated with Avanti was the Shipra, a tributary of the Chambal, which flows into the Yamuna.

Incorrectly matched.

Kosala – Sarayu:

Kosala was a powerful Mahajanapada in ancient India, with its capital at Sravasti.

The Sarayu River (also known as Ghaghara or Ayodhya River) prominently flowed through the Kosala region and is historically associated with Ayodhya, a significant city within Kosala.

Correctly matched.

Therefore, only two pairs are correctly matched: Asmaka – Godavari and Kosala – Sarayu.

The final answer is

(b) Only two

Question 28. The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in:

(a) Delhi

(b) Ujjain

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c) Lahore

Explanation:

Vishnu Digambar Paluskar, a legendary figure in Hindustani classical music, founded the first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya in Lahore in 1901.

His aim was to institutionalize the teaching of classical music, making it accessible to the public, breaking the tradition of music being confined to gharanas and court patronage.

The school later became a pioneer in the modern system of music education in India.

After partition, branches were established in other cities, notably Bombay and Delhi, but the original one was founded in Lahore.

Correct answer: (c) Lahore.

Question 29. Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the ‘Pradeshika’, ‘Rajuka’, and ‘Yukta’ were important officers at the:

(a) Village-level administration

(b) District-level administration

(d) Level of the central administration

Answer: (b) District-level administration

Explanation:

Ashokan inscriptions, especially the Major Rock Edicts, provide detailed information about the administrative structure of the Mauryan Empire. The following officers are mentioned:

Pradeshika: An officer in charge of a district or region, responsible for revenue collection and law enforcement.

Rajuka: District officers with magisterial powers, similar to modern-day collectors or magistrates; they were responsible for the welfare of people, land measurement, and dispensation of justice.

Yukta: Subordinate officials or clerks responsible for record-keeping, revenue, and assisting the Rajuka and Pradeshika in administration.

These officials played a crucial role at the district level, ensuring proper implementation of the king’s orders and maintaining administration in rural areas.

Correct answer: (b) District-level administration.

Question 30. Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement:

I. The Congress declared the attainment of “Swaraj” by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective.

II. It was to be implemented in stages, with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if Swaraj did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Explanation:

Statement I is correct – At the Nagpur Session of the Congress in 1920, the goal of attaining Swaraj by all legitimate and peaceful means was formally adopted. This aligned with Gandhi’s philosophy of non-violence and constitutional struggle.

Statement II is also correct – The Non-Cooperation Movement was designed to be carried out in phases:

Initial phase: Surrender of titles, boycott of government schools, law courts, and foreign goods.

Later phases (if necessary): Civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes, but only if Swaraj was not achieved within a year and if the British resorted to repression.

This step-by-step approach was part of Gandhi’s careful strategy to mobilize people gradually and avoid uncontrolled violence.

Correct answer: (c) Both I and II.

UPSC Prelims Paper 1 solution

UPSC Prelims 2025 Answer Key GS Paper 1

Question 31. With reference to investments, consider the following:

Bonds

Hedge Funds

Stocks

Venture Capital

How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs)?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All the four

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

In the financial world, Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) refer to investments outside traditional investment avenues like stocks, bonds, and cash.

Let’s evaluate:

Bonds – These are traditional investment instruments. Not classified as AIFs.

Hedge Funds – These are a type of Alternative Investment Fund, often pooled and professionally managed with aggressive strategies.

Stocks – These are traditional, mainstream investments in listed companies.

Venture Capital – This is a type of Alternative Investment, generally categorized under Category I AIF by SEBI in India.

Thus, only two (Hedge Funds and Venture Capital) are treated as AIFs.

Correct answer: (b) Only two.

Question 32. Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?

Buying and selling Government bonds

Buying and selling foreign currency

Pension fund management

Lending to private companies

Printing and distributing currency notes

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) I and II only

(b) II, III and IV

(d) I, II and V

Answer: (d) I, II and V

Explanation:

Let’s examine each potential source of income for the Reserve Bank of India (RBI):

I. Buying and selling Government bonds:

Yes, this is a significant source of income. The RBI conducts Open Market Operations (OMOs) by buying and selling government securities (bonds) to manage liquidity in the financial system. When the RBI buys government bonds, it earns interest on these holdings. When it sells them, it can realize capital gains or losses, and it also affects interest rates. The interest earned on government bonds held is a direct source of income.

II. Buying and selling foreign currency:

Yes, this is a major source of income. The RBI manages India’s foreign exchange reserves. It earns income from the interest and discount on foreign currency assets, as well as from exchange rate fluctuations (appreciation of foreign currencies against the Indian Rupee) and capital gains or losses on foreign securities. This income is derived from its management of the foreign exchange market and its investments in foreign currency assets.

III. Pension fund management:

No, the RBI does not manage external pension funds as a source of income. While the RBI has its own pension scheme for its employees, it does not act as a general pension fund manager for the public or other entities to generate income. Its role regarding pensions is more about regulating pension funds and ensuring proper disbursement by agency banks for government pensioners, not managing them for profit.

IV. Lending to private companies:

No, the RBI does not directly lend to private companies. The RBI is the “banker’s bank” and the “government’s bank.” It lends to commercial banks (through mechanisms like the repo rate, MSF, etc.) and to the government. Private companies borrow from commercial banks, not directly from the RBI.

V. Printing and distributing currency notes:

Yes, this is a source of income, known as seigniorage. Seigniorage is the profit earned by the central bank from issuing currency. It is the difference between the face value of the currency notes and the cost of printing and distributing them. The RBI, as the sole authority for issuing currency (except one rupee notes and coins), essentially “creates” money at a very low production cost and issues it at its face value. This difference is a form of revenue.

Based on the analysis, the sources of income for the RBI from the given list are:

I. Buying and selling Government bonds

II. Buying and selling foreign currency

V. Printing and distributing currency notes

The final answer is

(d) I, II and V

Question 33. With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:

Organization – Some of its functions – It works under

I. Directorate of Enforcement – Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 – Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs

II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence – Enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 – Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance

III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management – Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders – Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance

How many of the above rows are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

Directorate of Enforcement (ED):

Function is correct: It enforces Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 and Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA).

But the ministry is incorrect: It works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not Ministry of Home Affairs.

Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI):

Correctly enforces the Customs Act, 1962.

It works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.

Directorate General of Systems and Data Management:

It provides data analytics support to GST and income tax systems.

It functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.

Correctly matched rows: 2 (II and III)

Correct answer: (b) Only two.

Question 34. Consider the following statements:

The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR).

In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) II only

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (b) II only

Explanation:

Statement I is incorrect:

The Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR) is mandated by SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India), not the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). SEBI introduced BRSR to replace the earlier Business Responsibility Report (BRR) to promote environmental, social, and governance (ESG) disclosures.

Statement II is correct:

The BRSR disclosures are largely non-financial. They focus on a company’s impact on environment, social responsibility, governance practices, sustainability measures, etc., rather than traditional financial metrics.

Correct answer: (b) II only.

Question 35. Consider the following statements:

Statement I:

In India, income from allied agricultural activities, like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.

Statement II:

In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Explanation:

Statement I is not correct:

Income from core agricultural activities (like crop cultivation) is exempt from income tax under Section 10(1) of the Income-tax Act.

However, allied agricultural activities such as poultry farming, dairy, bee-keeping, wool rearing are not treated as agricultural income under the Act and hence are taxable.

Statement II is correct:

Under the Income-tax Act, 1961, rural agricultural land is not treated as a capital asset. Therefore, no capital gains tax is levied on its sale. However, urban agricultural land is considered a capital asset and is taxed accordingly.

Correct answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct.

UPSC Prelims 2025 Answer Key GS Paper 1

Question 36. Consider the following statements:

I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) as a member.

II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified.

III. The Parliament in 2023 amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) I and III only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:

India joined the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) in June 2023. The MSP is a U.S.-led initiative aimed at securing stable and sustainable supply chains for critical minerals, involving countries like the U.S., Australia, Japan, and EU members.

Statement 2 is incorrect:

India has identified 30 critical minerals, including lithium, cobalt, nickel, REEs, etc., but it is not resource-rich in all of them. For many, including lithium and cobalt, India depends heavily on imports or has limited domestic reserves.

Statement 3 is correct:

In 2023, Parliament amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, empowering the Central Government to conduct exclusive auctions for 24 critical minerals. This was done to fast-track exploration and reduce import dependency.

Correct answer: (c) I and III only.

Question 37. Consider the following statements:

Statement I:

As regards returns from investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.

Statement II:

Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.

Statement III:

For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Explanation:

Statement I is correct: Bondholders generally face lower risk compared to stockholders because their returns (interest payments) are fixed and they have priority during liquidation.

Statement II is correct: Bondholders are creditors (lenders), while stockholders are owners of the company. Hence, bondholders are entitled to repayment, not ownership or dividends.

Statement III is correct: In the event of liquidation, bondholders are repaid before stockholders, which lowers their investment risk.

Since both Statement II and III correctly explain why bondholders are considered less risky, the correct answer is:

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I.

Question 38. Consider the following statements:

India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally, thus exhibiting a great boom.

India’s stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past, even overtaking Hong Kong’s at some point of time.

There is no regulatory body either to warn small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (a) I and II only

Explanation:

Statement I is correct: As per data from global derivatives exchanges, India leads the world in equity derivatives trading volume — especially equity options — accounting for a significant share globally. This indicates a boom in derivatives markets in India.

Statement II is correct: In 2023, India’s stock market briefly overtook Hong Kong’s to become the 4th largest in the world by market capitalization — reflecting the rapid growth of Indian equity markets.

Statement III is incorrect: India has a regulatory body – the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) – which:

Regularly warns investors against high-risk activities like options trading,

Takes action against unregistered investment advisors,

And ensures investor protection through various regulations and awareness initiatives.

Correct answer: (a) I and II only.

Question 39. Consider the following statements:

Statement I:

Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.

Statement II:

Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.

Statement III:

Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Explanation:

Statement I is correct: A circular economy aims to minimize waste, reuse resources, and extend product life cycles, which significantly helps in reducing greenhouse gas emissions by decreasing the need for resource extraction and manufacturing.

Statement II is correct: Circular models emphasize recycling, refurbishing, and reusing, which reduces the use of virgin/raw materials as inputs.

Statement III is correct: The circular economy promotes efficiency and minimizes waste during production by using eco-designs and resource-efficient methods.

Both II and III explain how emissions are reduced:

II – Less extraction and processing → fewer emissions.

III – Less waste and energy loss in production → fewer emissions.

Correct answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I.

Question 40. Consider the following statements:

Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.

Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.

Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (a) I and II only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:

Capital receipts are those which either create a liability (like borrowings) or reduce the assets (like disinvestment, i.e., selling PSUs). These are not part of routine revenue but have long-term implications.

Statement 2 is correct:

Both borrowings (internal or external) and disinvestment proceeds fall under capital receipts because:

Borrowing creates a future repayment obligation (liability).

Disinvestment leads to a reduction in government-owned assets.

Statement 3 is incorrect:

Interest received on loans is a revenue receipt, not a capital receipt. Also, it does not create a liability for the government — rather, it is income earned by the government from loans it has extended.

Correct answer: (a) I and II only.

UPSC Prelims 2025 Answer Key GS Paper 1

UPSC Prelims 2025 Answer Key GS Paper 1 – UPSC Prelims Paper 1 solution

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UPSC Mains Question Paper (2013 – 2024)

Question 41. Consider the following countries:

Austria

Bulgaria

Croatia

Serbia

Sweden

North Macedonia

How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)?

(a) Only three

(b) Only four

(d) All the six

Answer: (b) Only four

Explanation:

Let’s examine each country’s NATO membership status:

Austria: No. Austria has a policy of permanent neutrality and is not a member of NATO, although it participates in NATO’s Partnership for Peace program.

Bulgaria: Yes. Bulgaria joined NATO on March 29, 2004.

Croatia: Yes. Croatia joined NATO on April 1, 2009.

Serbia: No. Serbia is militarily neutral and has no current plans to join NATO, although it participates in the Partnership for Peace program.

Sweden: Yes. Sweden became the newest member of NATO on March 7, 2024.

North Macedonia: Yes. North Macedonia joined NATO on March 27, 2020.

Counting the “Yes” responses: Bulgaria, Croatia, Sweden, and North Macedonia.

Therefore, four of the listed countries are members of NATO.

The final answer is (b) Only four

Question 42. Consider the following countries:

Bolivia

Brazil

Colombia

Ecuador

Paraguay

Venezuela

The Andes Mountains pass through how many of the above countries?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(d) Only five

Answer: (c) Only four

Explanation:

The Andes Mountains are the longest continental mountain range in the world, stretching along the western coast of South America from Venezuela to Chile. Let’s evaluate each country:

Bolivia – Yes, Andes run through western Bolivia.

Brazil – No, Andes do not pass through Brazil; it lies to the east of the Andes.

Colombia – Yes, northern Andes extend into Colombia.

Ecuador – Yes, Andes run through central Ecuador.

Paraguay – No, it lies east of the Andes.

Venezuela – Yes, the northernmost extension of the Andes begins in western Venezuela.

Countries through which the Andes pass:

Bolivia

Colombia

Ecuador

Venezuela

Total = 4

Correct answer: (c) Only four.

Question 43. Consider the following water bodies:

Lake Tanganyika

Lake Tonle Sap

Patos Lagoon

Through how many of them does the Equator pass?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:

Let’s examine each water body’s location relative to the Equator:

Lake Tanganyika: Lake Tanganyika is one of the African Great Lakes. While its northern tip is very close to the Equator, the Equator does not pass through the main body of Lake Tanganyika. The Equator passes through another prominent African Great Lake, Lake Victoria.

Lake Tonle Sap: Lake Tonle Sap is the largest freshwater lake in Southeast Asia, located in Cambodia. Cambodia is situated significantly north of the Equator (roughly between 10°N and 15°N latitude). Therefore, the Equator does not pass through Lake Tonle Sap.

Patos Lagoon: Patos Lagoon (Lagoa dos Patos) is located in the state of Rio Grande do Sul, southern Brazil. Brazil is a country through which the Equator passes, but the Patos Lagoon is located in the southern part of the country, well south of the Equator (at approximately 31-32° S latitude). Therefore, the Equator does not pass through Patos Lagoon.

Based on this analysis, the Equator does not pass through any of the listed water bodies.

The final answer is (d) None

Question 44. Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022–23:

I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.

II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.

III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Explanation:

Statement I is correct:

India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric globally, contributing nearly 75–80% of the world’s total production. Major importing countries from India include Bangladesh, UAE, USA, Iran, and Sri Lanka.

Statement II is correct:

India cultivates more than 30 varieties of turmeric across different agro-climatic zones. These include Erode, Salem, Rajapuri, Alleppey Finger, Suvarna, Sugandham, Krishna, Roma, etc.

Statement III is correct:

The major turmeric-producing states in India include Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Odisha. These regions offer suitable climatic and soil conditions for turmeric cultivation.

Correct answer: (d) I, II and III.

Question 45. Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift?

I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa.

II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.

III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) I and III only

(b) I and II only

(d) II and III only

Answer: (c) I, II and III

Explanation:

These are all classic geological evidences supporting Alfred Wegener’s Continental Drift Theory:

Matching rock formations: The Precambrian rock sequences on the eastern coast of South America (Brazil) align almost perfectly with those on the western coast of Africa, indicating they were once connected.

Gold deposits link: The gold deposits in Ghana are believed to have originated from the Brazilian plateau, indicating geological continuity when South America and Africa were joined.

Gondwana sedimentary system: The Gondwana sediments of India (rich in coal) have exact counterparts in continents like Australia, South Africa, Antarctica, South America, and Madagascar, indicating they were part of the ancient supercontinent Gondwanaland.

Correct answer: (c) I, II and III.

UPSC Prelims 2025 Answer Key GS Paper 1

Question 46. Consider the following statements:

Statement I:

The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.

Statement II:

Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

Explanation:

Statement I is correct:

The amount of dust particles is indeed higher in subtropical and temperate regions compared to equatorial and polar areas. This is due to:

Higher aridity (especially in subtropical deserts like the Sahara, Arabian Desert),

Greater exposure to wind erosion, and

Sparse vegetation that allows dust to be easily lifted.

Statement II is not correct:

Subtropical and temperate regions, particularly subtropical deserts, experience more dry winds, not less. These dry and hot winds (like loo, sirocco, and harmattan) contribute significantly to dust circulation.

Therefore, the reasoning in Statement II is incorrect, though Statement I is factually true.

Correct answer: (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct.

Question 47. Consider the following statements:

Statement I:

In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.

Statement II:

In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

Explanation:

Statement I is correct:

In January, during winter in the Northern Hemisphere, isotherms (lines of equal temperature) tend to bend equatorward over landmasses (which cool faster and become colder) and poleward over oceans (which retain more heat and remain warmer). This pattern reflects the differential heating of land and sea.

Statement II is correct:

In winter (January), oceans are warmer than landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere because water has a higher specific heat capacity and loses heat more slowly than land.

Statement II explains Statement I:

The warmer oceans and cooler land cause the isotherms to shift equatorward over land and poleward over ocean, hence Statement II explains the reason for the isotherm behavior described in Statement I.

Correct answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I.

Question 48. Consider the following statements:

Statement I:

In the context of the effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock, whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.

Statement II:

Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water.

Statement III:

Clay is not at all porous.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Explanation:

Statement I is correct:

Chalk is a porous and permeable sedimentary rock that allows water to pass through easily. Clay, on the other hand, is impermeable or has very low permeability, meaning it resists the flow of water.

Statement II is correct:

Chalk is porous, and this porosity allows it to absorb and transmit water, which is the reason it is permeable.

Statement III is incorrect:

While clay has very small pores, it is still slightly porous at the microscopic level. However, due to the very low pore connectivity, it is effectively impermeable. So, saying it is “not at all porous” is an exaggeration, but contextually, it reflects its very low permeability.

Among the two, only Statement II directly explains why chalk is permeable and supports Statement I.

Correct answer: (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Question 49. Consider the following statements:

I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth’s surface.

II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet’s average temperature.

III. Atmosphere’s gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and III only

(b) I and II only

(d) II and III only

Answer: (c) I, II and III

Explanation:

Statement I is correct:

Without the Earth’s atmosphere, there would be no greenhouse effect, and average surface temperatures would fall to around -18°C (well below freezing) instead of the current +15°C, making Earth inhospitable to most life.

Statement II is correct:

The greenhouse gases in the atmosphere trap heat (longwave infrared radiation) radiated from Earth’s surface, thus regulating and maintaining the planet’s average temperature.

Statement III is correct:

Carbon dioxide (CO₂), along with other greenhouse gases like methane, water vapor, and nitrous oxide, is highly effective at absorbing and trapping heat radiation, playing a crucial role in the greenhouse effect.

Correct answer: (c) I, II and III.

Question 50. Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission:

I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.

II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Explanation:

Statement I is correct:

The Rashtriya Gokul Mission plays a significant role in the upliftment of rural poor, especially small and marginal farmers and landless labourers, who often rear low-yielding indigenous breeds. Enhancing their productivity improves rural livelihoods.

Statement II is correct:

The mission was launched in 2014 under the National Programme for Bovine Breeding and Dairy Development, with the objective of:

Conserving and developing indigenous bovine breeds in a scientific and holistic manner,

Promoting scientific breeding, and

Enhancing milk productivity and farm income.

Correct answer: (c) Both I and II.

UPSC Prelims Paper 1 solution

Question 51. Consider the following statements:

I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.

II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.

III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Explanation:

Statement I is not correct:

As per Article 243B of the Constitution, intermediate-level Panchayats are only constituted in states having a population of more than 20 lakhs.

Therefore, not all states have intermediate-level Panchayats (i.e., Zila Parishad–Block level tier).

Statement II is not correct:

According to Article 243F of the Constitution, the minimum age to contest Panchayat elections is 21 years, not 30.

Statement III is not correct:

The State Finance Commission (as per Article 243-I) is constituted by the Governor, not the Chief Minister.

It reviews the financial position of all levels of Panchayats, not just the intermediate level, and recommends the distribution of taxes.

Correct answer: (d) I, II and III.

Question 52. Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC:

I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025.

II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999.

III. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC.

IV. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of ‘Tourism’ is being led by India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and II

(b) II and III

(d) I only

Answer: (c) I and IV

Explanation:

Statement I is correct:

As of January 2025, BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) has 7 member countries:

Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Nepal, and Bhutan.

Statement II is incorrect:

BIMSTEC was founded on 6 June 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration, not the Dhaka Declaration of 1999.

Statement III is incorrect:

The founding members in 1997 were Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, and Thailand.

Myanmar joined in 1997,

Nepal and Bhutan joined later in 2004, hence not founding members.

Statement IV is correct:

Under BIMSTEC’s sectoral cooperation, India leads the Tourism sector (among others like Transport & Communication, Environment & Disaster Management).

Correct answer: (c) I and IV.

Question 53. Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of the ‘Gandhi Peace Prize’?

I. The President of India

II. The Prime Minister of India

III. The Chief Justice of India

IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) II and IV only

(b) I, II and III

(d) I and III only

Answer: (c) II, III and IV

Explanation:

The Gandhi Peace Prize was instituted in 1995 by the Government of India to commemorate the 125th birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi. It is awarded annually for contributions toward social, economic, and political transformation through non-violence and Gandhian methods.

The jury for selecting the recipient typically comprises:

The Prime Minister of India – Chairperson of the jury

The Chief Justice of India (CJI)

The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha

One eminent person selected by the government

The President of India is not part of the jury.

Correct answer: (c) II, III and IV.

Question 54. GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN?

I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity.

II. It will allow more uniform and high-quality air traffic management.

III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) I, II and III

(b) II and III only

(d) I and II only

Answer: (d) I and II only

Explanation:

Statement I is correct:

GAGAN (GPS Aided GEO Augmented Navigation) is a satellite-based augmentation system (SBAS) developed by ISRO and AAI.

It enhances the accuracy, availability, and integrity of GPS signals, especially for aviation navigation.

Statement II is correct:

GAGAN improves air traffic management, enabling precision approach and efficient route navigation, leading to uniformity and safety in airspace usage.

Statement III is incorrect:

While aviation is the primary beneficiary, GAGAN is also beneficial for other sectors like:

Railways (train tracking),

Marine navigation,

Road transport,

Surveying and mapping, and

Disaster management.

Hence, it is not limited to aviation.

Correct answer: (d) I and II only.

Question 55. Consider the following statements regarding the AI Action Summit held at the Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025:

I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024.

II. Along with other countries, the US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (a) I only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:

The AI Action Summit held in Paris in February 2025 was co-chaired by France and India. It built upon the progress made during the AI Safety Summit at Bletchley Park in 2023 and the AI Seoul Summit in 2024.

Statement 2 is incorrect:

The United States and the United Kingdom did not sign the declaration on “inclusive and sustainable AI” at the Paris summit.

Correct answer: (a) I only.

Question 56. Consider the following pairs:

I. International Year of the Woman Farmer : 2026

II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism : 2027

III. International Year of Peace and Trust : 2025

IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence : 2029

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All the four

Answer: (d) All the four

Explanation:

All four pairs are correctly matched as per official United Nations declarations:

International Year of the Woman Farmer – 2026

The UN General Assembly declared 2026 as the International Year of the Woman Farmer to highlight the vital role of women in agriculture and address the challenges they face.

International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism – 2027

In 2024, the UN General Assembly proclaimed 2027 as the International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism to promote sustainable tourism practices worldwide.

International Year of Peace and Trust – 2025

The UN General Assembly designated 2025 as the International Year of Peace and Trust to encourage dialogue and strengthen peace among nations.

International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence – 2029

The UN General Assembly declared 2029 as the International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence to raise awareness about the potential threats of asteroids and the importance of planetary defense.

Correct answer: (d) All the four

Question 57. Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS:

I. The 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan.

II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS.

III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was “Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security.”

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and II

(b) II and III

(d) I only

Answer: (a) I and II

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The 16th BRICS Summit took place in Kazan, Russia, from October 22 to 24, 2024, under the Chairmanship of Russia.

Statement 2 is correct: Indonesia officially became a full member of BRICS in January 2025, as announced by Brazil, the presiding country for 2025.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was “Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security”, not “Strengthening Multiculturalism…”

Correct answer: (a) I and II

Question 58. Consider the following statements about Lokpal:

I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.

II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.

III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.

IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) III only

(b) II and III

(d) None of the above statements is correct

Answer: (a) III only

Explanation:

Let’s evaluate each statement based on the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013:

Statement I – Incorrect:

The Lokpal has jurisdiction over public servants in India as well as those posted outside India. The law applies to all public servants as defined in the Act, irrespective of their posting.

Statement II – Incorrect:

It is true that MPs/MLAs cannot be Chairperson or Members of the Lokpal.

However, the Chairperson need not necessarily be the Chief Justice of India (CJI), whether incumbent or retired.

The Chairperson can be:

a former Chief Justice of India, or

a former Judge of the Supreme Court, or

an eminent person with impeccable integrity and at least 25 years of experience in public affairs, law, etc.

So, the “only the CJI…” part makes this statement incorrect.

Statement III – Correct:

Yes, as per the Lokpal Act, a person shall not be appointed as Chairperson or Member unless he/she is at least 45 years of age at the time of assuming office.

Statement IV – Incorrect:

The Lokpal can inquire into allegations of corruption against the sitting Prime Minister, but with some limitations, such as:

Allegations related to international relations, external and internal security, public order, atomic energy, and space are excluded.

Special procedures and in-camera inquiries apply.

So this statement is factually wrong.

Correct answer: (a) III only.

Question 59. Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho Kho World Cup:

I. The event was held in Delhi, India.

II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78-40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category.

III. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54-36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (a) I only

Explanation:

Let’s evaluate each statement about the first Kho Kho World Cup, which the search results indicate was the 2025 Kho Kho World Cup:

I. The event was held in Delhi, India.

The search results confirm that “The 2025 Kho Kho World Cup was the first edition of the Kho Kho World Cup. It was held at the Indira Gandhi Arena in New Delhi, India from 13 to 19 January 2025.”

This statement is correct.

II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78-40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category.

The search results state: “The Indian men’s kho kho team beat Nepal 54-36 in the final” and “India’s men were crowned champions… after a 54-36 triumph over Nepal in the final.” The score 78-40 is mentioned for the women’s final.

This statement is incorrect.

III. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54-36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category.

The search results state: “the women’s team won 78-40 against the same opponents [Nepal]” and “The Women in Blue dominated Nepal in a spectacular final, sealing their victory with an emphatic score of 78-40.” The score 54-36 is mentioned for the men’s final.

This statement is incorrect.

Based on the analysis:

Statement I is correct.

Statement II is incorrect.

Statement III is incorrect.

Therefore, only statement I is correct.

The final answer is (a) I only

Question 60. Consider the following statements:

I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world’s “youngest winner” after defeating the Russian Nepomniachtchi player.

II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming the world’s youngest ever Grandmaster.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (b) II only

Explanation:

Let’s break down each statement:

I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world’s “youngest winner” after defeating the Russian Nepomniachtchi player.

45th Chess Olympiad in 2024: Gukesh did participate and won individual and team gold medals at the 45th Chess Olympiad in Budapest, Hungary in September 2024.

“Youngest winner” and opponent: Gukesh became the “youngest undisputed world champion” in December 2024, but he achieved this title by defeating Ding Liren (from China) in the World Chess Championship, not Ian Nepomniachtchi in the Chess Olympiad final. Gukesh did play against Ian Nepomniachtchi in the Candidates Tournament 2024, which he won to earn the right to challenge the world champion, but he didn’t defeat Nepomniachtchi in the final of the Chess Olympiad to become “world’s youngest winner.” The Chess Olympiad is a team event, and Gukesh won individual gold and team gold.

Therefore, Statement I is incorrect.

II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming the world’s youngest ever Grandmaster.

The search results clearly state: “Abhimanyu Mishra (born February 5, 2009) is an American chess grandmaster. A chess prodigy, he holds the record for the world’s youngest ever grandmaster, having qualified for the title at the age of 12 years, 4 months, and 25 days.” (Source: Wikipedia, FIDE, Guinness World Records).

Therefore, Statement II is correct.

Based on the analysis:

Statement I is incorrect.

Statement II is correct.

The final answer is (b) II only

UPSC Prelims 2025 Answer Key GS Paper 1 – UPSC Prelims Paper 1 solution

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UPSC Mains Question Paper (2013 – 2024)

Question 61. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors.

Statement II: Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

Explanation:

Rare earth elements such as europium, terbium, and yttrium are widely used in the production of flat-screen televisions and computer monitors due to their phosphorescent properties, which allow them to emit visible light when excited. These elements are essential in creating vivid colors on screens through phosphor coatings. Hence, Statement I is correct, and Statement II correctly explains Statement I.

Question 62. Consider the following statements:

I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a future-ready railway system by 2028.

II. Kavach is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.

III. Kavach system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (a) I and II only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Rail Plan (NRP) aims to create a future-ready railway system by 2030, not 2028.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Kavach is an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system. It is not developed in collaboration with Germany.

Statement 3 is correct: Kavach uses technologies like RFID (Radio Frequency Identification) tags on tracks and train-borne equipment for train detection and safety.

Hence, Statements I and II are not correct, while Statement III is correct.

Question 63. Consider the following space missions:

I. Axiom-4

II. SpaDex

III. Gaganyaan

IV. How many of the space missions given above encourage and support meso gravity research?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:

“Meso gravity” is not a standard term in space exploration for research environments. The primary categories of gravity environments studied in space are:

Microgravity (or near-zero gravity): This is the environment experienced in orbiting spacecraft like the International Space Station (ISS) or during parabolic flights. Research in microgravity is very common.

Partial gravity: This refers to gravity levels found on other celestial bodies, such as the Moon (approx. 1/6th Earth gravity) or Mars (approx. 1/3rd Earth gravity). Research in partial gravity typically requires dedicated facilities or missions to those bodies.

Hypergravity: This refers to gravity levels higher than Earth’s, usually simulated in centrifuges on Earth or in space.

The term “mesogravity” is sometimes encountered in theoretical or niche discussions, often referring to gravity levels between microgravity and partial gravity, or experienced in very large asteroids. However, it’s not a widely recognized or actively pursued research field in the same way as microgravity or partial gravity. Most research in space is categorized under “microgravity” or “low-gravity” research.

Let’s look at the missions provided:

I. Axiom-4: This is a private human spaceflight mission to the International Space Station (ISS). The ISS is a microgravity environment. The search results for Axiom-4 explicitly mention “microgravity research” multiple times (e.g., “advance microgravity research in low-Earth orbit (LEO)”, “effects of microgravity on the human body”, “cancer cell behaviour in microgravity”). It does not mention “meso gravity research.”

II. SpaDex: This is ISRO’s Space Docking Experiment. Its primary objective is to demonstrate rendezvous, docking, and undocking technologies for future applications like space stations and lunar missions. The mission takes place in a Low Earth Orbit (LEO), which is a microgravity environment. The search results do not mention “meso gravity research” for SpaDex, focusing instead on orbital maneuvers and power transfer in a microgravity setting.

III. Gaganyaan: This is India’s human spaceflight mission, which aims to send astronauts to Low Earth Orbit (LEO) and establish an Indian-crewed lunar mission by 2040. Similar to Axiom-4 and SpaDex, LEO is a microgravity environment. The search results for Gaganyaan explicitly state that “ISRO will send its Gaganyatri to the International Space Station as part of a joint mission… During the mission, ISRO’s Gaganyatri Shubhanshu Shukla will conduct seven microgravity research experiments”.

Given that all three missions are primarily focused on or involve operations in a microgravity (near-zero gravity) environment, and the term “meso gravity research” is not standardly associated with them or with mainstream space research, it’s highly unlikely any of these missions specifically encourage or support “meso gravity research.”

Therefore, none of the listed missions encourage or support “meso gravity research” as a distinct field in the way microgravity is.

The final answer is (d) None

Question 64. With reference to India’s defence, consider the following pairs:

Aircraft Type – Description

Dornier-228 – Maritime patrol aircraft

IL-76 – Supersonic combat aircraft

C-17 Globemaster III – Military transport aircraft

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

Dornier-228 – Correctly matched

The Dornier-228 is a twin-turboprop aircraft used by the Indian Navy and Coast Guard primarily for maritime patrol, reconnaissance, and surveillance missions.

IL-76 – Incorrectly matched

The IL-76 is not a supersonic combat aircraft. It is a strategic heavy-lift military transport aircraft used by the Indian Air Force for cargo and troop transport.

C-17 Globemaster III – Correctly matched

The C-17 is a large military transport aircraft used by the Indian Air Force for rapid strategic airlift of troops and cargo.

Thus, Pairs 1 and 3 are correct, while Pair 2 is incorrect.

Correct Option: (b) Only two

Question 65. Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of:

(a) Silver iodide and potassium iodide

(b) Silver nitrate and potassium iodide

(d) Silver nitrate and potassium chloride

Answer: (a) Silver iodide and potassium iodide

Explanation:

The artificial induction of rainfall is known as cloud seeding, and it is often used to mitigate air pollution by washing out atmospheric particulates.

The most commonly used chemicals in cloud seeding are silver iodide (AgI) and potassium iodide (KI).

These substances serve as condensation nuclei—tiny particles that attract water vapor to form droplets, leading to precipitation.

Silver iodide’s crystalline structure is similar to that of ice, making it particularly effective in supercooled clouds.

Therefore, the correct pair used in artificial rainmaking is silver iodide and potassium iodide.

Correct Option: (a) Silver iodide and potassium iodide

Question 66. Consider the following statements with regard to the pardoning power of the President of India:

I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.

II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (a) I only

Explanation:

Statement I – Correct:

The pardoning power of the President under Article 72 is subject to limited judicial review. The Supreme Court has held (in cases such as Kehar Singh v. Union of India and Epuru Sudhakar v. Govt. of A.P.) that although the President’s power is wide, it cannot be exercised arbitrarily or mala fide, and courts can review the decision on limited grounds like non-application of mind or malafide intent.

Statement II – Incorrect:

The President must act on the advice of the Council of Ministers (Central Government) under Article 74. The President does not have discretion to act independently in exercising pardoning power.

Correct Option: (a) I only

Question 67. Consider the following statements:

I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.

II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.

III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) I and III only

Explanation:

Statement I – Correct:

As per Article 94 of the Constitution, the Speaker does not vacate office upon the dissolution of Lok Sabha. They continue in office until just before the first meeting of the new House.

Statement II – Incorrect:

The Constitution does not mandate that the Speaker must resign from their political party on being elected. However, the Speaker is expected to remain impartial, and by convention, often refrains from active party politics. But it is not a constitutional requirement.

Statement III – Correct:

The Speaker can be removed from office by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of Lok Sabha (effective majority). As per Article 94 and relevant rules, a 14-day notice is required before moving such a resolution.

Correct Option: (c) I and III only

Question 68. Consider the following statements:

I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.

II. There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (d) Neither I nor II

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Incorrect:

Under the 10th Schedule (Anti-Defection Law), the decision on disqualification of a Member is taken by the Speaker (or the Chairman in Rajya Sabha) of the respective House, not the President. The President’s decision is relevant only under Article 103, concerning disqualifications under Articles 102 and 191, not the 10th Schedule.

Statement 2 – Incorrect:

The word ‘political party’ is explicitly mentioned in the 10th Schedule of the Constitution (added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985), particularly in relation to disqualifications arising out of defection from or actions against political parties.

Correct Option: (d) Neither I nor II

Question 69. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.

Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Explanation:

Statement I – Incorrect:

Under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, State Governments have the power to make rules for the grant of concessions related to minor minerals, such as building stones, gravel, clay, etc. This power is granted under Section 15 of the Act.

Statement II – Correct:

The Central Government has the power to notify which minerals are classified as “minor minerals” under Section 3(e) of the same Act. Once a mineral is declared as a “minor mineral” by the Centre, the regulatory powers for its extraction are transferred to the States.

Correct Option: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Question 70. Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?

(a) The European Union

(b) The World Bank

(d) The Food and Agriculture Organization

Answer: (a) The European Union

Explanation:

The Nature Restoration Law (NRL) was enacted by the European Union (EU) as part of its Green Deal and Biodiversity Strategy for 2030. This law aims to restore degraded ecosystems, combat climate change, and halt biodiversity loss across EU member states.

It legally binds EU countries to restore at least 20% of the EU’s land and sea areas by 2030 and all ecosystems in need of restoration by 2050.

It targets forests, wetlands, rivers, grasslands, and urban ecosystems.

This law is a major step toward meeting EU’s climate and biodiversity commitments under international treaties like the Paris Agreement and UN Convention on Biological Diversity.

Correct Option: (a) The European Union

UPSC Prelims Paper 1 solution

UPSC Prelims 2025 Answer Key GS Paper 1

Question 71. Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹10,000 crores and interest payments of ₹6,000 crores.

Which of the following statements are correct?

I. Revenue deficit is ₹20,000 crores.

II. Fiscal deficit is ₹10,000 crores.

III. Primary deficit is ₹4,000 crores.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Explanation:

Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure – Revenue Receipts

= ₹80,000 crore – ₹60,000 crore = ₹20,000 crore

Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure – Total Receipts (excluding borrowings)

Since borrowings are ₹10,000 crore, they cover the gap between expenditure and revenue (excluding borrowings), this implies Fiscal Deficit = ₹10,000 crore

Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments

= ₹10,000 crore – ₹6,000 crore = ₹4,000 crore

Correct Option: (d) I, II and III

Question 72. India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect:

(a) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran

(b) India to Central Asia via China

(d) India to Europe through Azerbaijan

Answer: (a) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran

Explanation:

The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a multi-modal transportation network (ship, rail, and road) connecting India, Iran, Russia, Central Asia, and Europe.

It is intended to reduce the time and cost of cargo movement between India and Europe by bypassing the traditional route via the Suez Canal.

Key route: India (Mumbai) → Iran (Bandar Abbas) → Caspian Sea → Russia → Europe.

Central Asia is connected via Iran and the Caspian Sea ports.

India, Russia, and Iran are the founding members of INSTC.

Correct Option: (a) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran

Question 73. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.

Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Explanation:

Statement I – Incorrect: The United States is the world’s largest ethanol producer, not Brazil. The USA produces the majority of its ethanol from corn, while Brazil is the second-largest producer, using sugarcane.

Statement II – Correct: Yes, Brazil uses sugarcane as its primary feedstock for ethanol production, while the USA uses corn. This distinction is well-documented and is a key feature of their respective biofuel industries.

Correct Option: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Question 74. The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35 °C. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?

I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.

II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (b) II only

Explanation:

Wet-bulb temperature is a measure of heat and humidity combined. At 35 °C wet-bulb temperature, the human body cannot cool itself by sweating, which makes prolonged exposure fatal even for healthy individuals.

Statement I – Incorrect: While flooding, cyclones, and droughts are consequences of climate change, they are not directly caused by wet-bulb temperatures. The wet-bulb temperature threat specifically relates to human (and animal) physiological survival due to impaired thermoregulation.

Statement II – Correct: Wet-bulb temperatures above 35 °C hinder perspiration, making it impossible for humans and animals to shed heat, which can lead to heatstroke and death.

Correct Option: (b) II only

Question 75. A country’s fiscal deficit stands at ₹50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country’s interest liabilities are ₹1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?

(a) ₹48,500 crores

(b) ₹51,500 crores

(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) ₹48,500 crores

Explanation:

Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure – Total Receipts (excluding borrowings)

→ Given: Fiscal Deficit = ₹50,000 crores

Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments

→ ₹50,000 crores – ₹1,500 crores = ₹48,500 crores

The non-debt creating capital receipts (like disinvestment, sale of assets) do not affect the calculation of primary deficit directly in this context. They are part of capital receipts but do not reduce fiscal deficit.

Correct Option: (a) ₹48,500 crores

UPSC Prelims 2025 Answer Key GS Paper 1

Question 76. Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?

I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022-23 to the year 2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.

II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.

III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.

IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) I, II and III

(b) I, II and IV

(d) II, III and IV

Answer: (c) I, III and IV

Explanation:

Statement I – Correct

The 15th Finance Commission recommended ₹4,800 crores for the period 2022–23 to 2025–26 to incentivize States for improving educational outcomes.

Statement II – Incorrect

The tax devolution recommended by the 15th Finance Commission is 41% (not 45%) of the net proceeds of Union taxes to the States.

Statement III – Correct

It recommended ₹45,000 crores as performance-based incentives for agricultural reforms across all States.

Statement IV – Correct

The 15th FC reintroduced the “tax effort” as a criterion to reward States that have made better fiscal efforts, especially in mobilizing their own tax revenues.

Correct Option: (c) I, III and IV

Question 77. Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD):

I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle-income countries.

II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty.

III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) I and III only

Explanation:

Statement I – Correct

The IBRD, a part of the World Bank Group, primarily provides loans and financial services to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries. These include development loans, policy advice, and technical assistance.

Statement II – Incorrect

The IBRD does not work single-handedly; it is part of a larger World Bank Group, which includes institutions like IDA, IFC, MIGA, and ICSID. Hence, the phrase “works single-handedly” is inaccurate.

Statement III – Correct

The IBRD was established in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference, originally to aid the reconstruction of Europe after World War II before expanding its focus to global development.

Correct Option: (c) I and III only

Question 78. Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT:

I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments.

II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.

III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) I and II

(d) III only

Answer: (c) I and III

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct

RTGS (Real-Time Gross Settlement): Payments are settled immediately and individually in real time.

NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer): Payments are settled in batches at regular intervals, not instantly.

Statement 2 – Incorrect

As per RBI guidelines, no charges are levied for inward transactions in both RTGS and NEFT. The beneficiary receives funds without any charge.

Statement 3 – Correct

RTGS is available 24×7, but may be restricted or undergo scheduled downtime/maintenance during certain hours or days, especially for backend operations.

NEFT is also 24×7 and does not have such scheduled restrictions on specific days.

Correct Option: (c) I and III

Question 79. Consider the following countries:

I. United Arab Emirates

II. France

III. Germany

IV. Singapore

V. Bangladesh

How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(d) All the five

Answer: (b) Only three

Explanation:

As of early 2024, List of countries where international merchant payments are accepted at select merchant outlets:

Sr.No Country Name

1 Bhutan

2 France

3 Mauritius

4 Nepal

5 Singapore

6 Sri Lanka

7 UAE

Source – NPCI

Question 80. Consider the following statements about ‘PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana’ (Free Electricity Scheme):

I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.

II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance, and repairs of solar rooftop systems at the grassroots level.

III. It aims to create more than three lakh skilled manpower through fresh skilling and upskilling, under the scheme component of capacity building.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Explanation:

Statement I – Correct:

The PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana, launched in 2024, targets the installation of 1 crore solar rooftop systems for households to promote clean energy and reduce power bills.

Statement II – Correct:

The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) is actively working to train individuals at the grassroots in installation, operation, and maintenance to support this large-scale rollout.

Statement III – Correct:

The scheme includes a capacity-building component aiming to skill and upskill more than 3 lakh individuals to develop technical expertise and boost employment opportunities in the green energy sector.

Correct Option: (d) I, II and III

UPSC Prelims 2025 Answer Key GS Paper 1 – UPSC Prelims Paper 1 solution

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UPSC Mains Question Paper (2013 – 2024)

UPSC Prelims 2025 Answer Key GS Paper 1

Question 81. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.

II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.

III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) I and III only

Explanation:

Statement I – Correct

As per Article 123 of the Constitution, the President can promulgate an Ordinance when Parliament is not in session, and such an Ordinance has the same force and effect as a law passed by Parliament.

Therefore, an Ordinance can amend or repeal any Central Act.

Statement II – Incorrect

Fundamental Rights are protected under Part III of the Constitution.

As per Supreme Court rulings (e.g., AK Gopalan Case, Minerva Mills), even an Ordinance is subject to judicial review and cannot abridge Fundamental Rights, as that would violate the basic structure of the Constitution.

Statement III – Correct

An Ordinance can be given retrospective effect, i.e., it can come into effect from a back date, similar to a regular law passed by Parliament, as long as it does not violate constitutional provisions.

Correct Option: (c) I and III only

Question 82. Consider the following pairs:

State – Description

I. Arunachal Pradesh – The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks

II. Nagaland – The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act

III. Tripura – Initially a Part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (c) All the three

Explanation:

Arunachal Pradesh – Correct

The capital Itanagar is named after Ita Fort (“Ita” means brick in Assamese).

It has two national parks: Namdapha National Park and Mouling National Park.

Nagaland – Correct

Nagaland became a state through the 13th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1962, and officially came into existence on 1 December 1963.

Tripura – Correct

It was a Part ‘C’ State after independence, became a Union Territory in 1956 after the States Reorganisation Act, and was later granted full statehood in 1972.

Correct Option: (c) All the three

Question 83. With reference to India, consider the following:

I. The Inter-State Council

II. The National Security Council

III. Zonal Councils

How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (a) Only one

Explanation:

Inter-State Council – Established under the Constitution

Provided under Article 263 of the Constitution of India.

It is meant to facilitate coordination between States and the Centre on policies and disputes.

National Security Council – Not constitutional

It is an executive body, established in 1998 by the Government of India for advising the Prime Minister on matters of national security and strategic interest.

It is not mentioned in the Constitution.

Zonal Councils – Not constitutional

These were established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, which is a statutory provision, not a constitutional one.

Correct Option: (a) Only one

Question 84. Consider the following statements:

I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.

II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (a) I only

Explanation:

Statement I – Correct

The Constitution explicitly provides for situations where the Governor acts in discretion (i.e., without the advice of the Council of Ministers), such as:

Reserving a bill for the President (Article 200),

In Sixth Schedule areas (tribal areas in NE),

Appointment of CM when no clear majority,

Recommendation of President’s Rule (Article 356).

These are constitutional provisions recognizing discretionary power.

Statement II – Incorrect

Only the Governor can reserve a bill for the President’s consideration as per Article 200.

The President cannot suo motu take up a state bill unless formally forwarded by the Governor.

Correct Option: (a) I only

Question 85. Consider the following pairs:

Provision in the Constitution of India Stated under

Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State The Directive Principles of State Policy

Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture The Fundamental Duties

Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories The Fundamental Rights

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (c) All the three

Explanation:

Separation of Judiciary from Executive – DPSP

Article 50 under Directive Principles of State Policy directs the State to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.

Valuing and preserving rich heritage – Fundamental Duties

As per Article 51A(f) of the Constitution, it is the duty of every citizen to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.

Prohibition of child labour – Fundamental Rights

Article 24 of the Constitution under Part III – Fundamental Rights prohibits the employment of children below 14 years in factories, mines, or other hazardous occupations.

Correct Option: (c) All the three

UPSC Prelims 2025 Answer Key GS Paper 1

Question 86. Consider the following statements:

With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule:

I. The State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration.

II. The Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (d) Neither I nor II

Explanation:

Statement I – Incorrect

When an area is declared a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule, the State Government does not lose its executive powers.

Rather, special provisions apply: the Governor has special powers to modify laws and ensure governance suited to tribal interests.

Local bodies do not assume total control; instead, tribal advisory councils and special administrative provisions may be established.

Statement II – Incorrect

The Union Government cannot take over total administration of a Scheduled Area just on the Governor’s recommendation.

The administration remains with the State Government, though the Governor has special responsibilities under the Fifth Schedule (e.g., sending reports to the President).

Correct Option: (d) Neither I nor II

Question 87. With reference to India, consider the following pairs:

Organization – Union Ministry

I. The National Automotive Board – Ministry of Commerce and Industry

II. The Coir Board – Ministry of Heavy Industries

III. The National Centre for Trade Information – Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:

I. The National Automotive Board – Ministry of Commerce and Industry

The National Automotive Board (NAB), established under the National Automotive Testing and R&D Infrastructure Project (NATRIP), functions under the Ministry of Heavy Industries. Its role is primarily related to the automotive sector’s development, R&D, and testing infrastructure.

Therefore, this pair is incorrect.

II. The Coir Board – Ministry of Heavy Industries

The Coir Board is a statutory body established under the Coir Industry Act, 1953, to promote the development of the coir industry. It functions under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME).

Therefore, this pair is incorrect.

III. The National Centre for Trade Information – Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

The National Centre for Trade Information (NCTI) was established by the Government of India in 1995 as a Company under Section 25 of the Companies Act, 1956 (now Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013). It functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Its objective is to collect, process, and disseminate trade information.

Therefore, this pair is incorrect.

Since none of the pairs are correctly matched.

The final answer is (d) None

Question 88. Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:

I. List I – Union List, in the Seventh Schedule

II. Extent of the executive power of a State

III. Conditions of the Governor’s office

For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (b) II and III only

Explanation:

As per Article 368(2) of the Indian Constitution, ratification by not less than one-half of the State Legislatures is required if the constitutional amendment seeks to make a change in:

The representation of States in Parliament,

The powers of the States,

The Seventh Schedule (but only List II or List III),

Any provision related to the High Courts,

Articles affecting the election or powers of the President or Governor, etc.

Now, examining the given subjects:

List I – Union List in the Seventh Schedule – No ratification needed, because Union List deals with Union powers, not State powers.

Extent of the executive power of a State – Yes, it affects State powers, so ratification by at least half the states is required.

Conditions of the Governor’s office – Yes, since it affects the position and powers of the Governor, ratification is required.

Correct Option: (b) II and III only

Question 89. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.

II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.

III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Explanation:

Statement I – Correct

As per Article 361(1) of the Constitution, “The Governor shall not be answerable to any court” for the exercise and performance of their official duties.

Statement II – Correct

Article 361(2) states that no criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor in any court during their term of office.

Statement III – Correct

As per Article 194(2) (similar to Article 105 for Parliament), no member of the Legislature of a State shall be liable to any proceedings in any court for anything said or any vote given in the Legislature or its committees. This is part of parliamentary privileges.

Correct Option: (d) I, II and III

Question 90. Consider the following activities:

I. Production of crude oil

II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum

III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products

IV. Production of natural gas

How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) in our country?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All the four

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was established under the PNGRB Act, 2006 to regulate downstream activities in the petroleum and natural gas sector in India. Let’s evaluate each:

Production of crude oil – Not regulated by PNGRB. It falls under the domain of Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas, Directorate General of Hydrocarbons (DGH).

Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum – Refining is not regulated by PNGRB. However, storage and distribution of petroleum products through pipelines are regulated by PNGRB to some extent.

Marketing and sale of petroleum products – PNGRB regulates marketing and retailing of petroleum products, particularly in terms of transportation and access to common carriers.

Production of natural gas – Production is outside PNGRB’s purview; it is handled by DGH.

But PNGRB does regulate the transportation and distribution of natural gas (e.g., City Gas Distribution networks).

Final Evaluation:

Regulated:

✅ Marketing and sale of petroleum products

✅ Distribution of petroleum (part of pipelines)

Not regulated:

❌ Production of crude oil

❌ Refining

❌ Production of natural gas

Hence, only two of the listed activities fall within PNGRB’s regulatory scope.

Correct Option: (b) Only two

UPSC Prelims Paper 1 solution

UPSC Prelims 2025 Answer Key GS Paper 1

Question 91. “Sedition has become my religion” was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of:

(a) the Champaran Satyagraha

(b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi

(d) the launch of the Quit India Movement

Answer: (a) the Champaran Satyagraha

Explanation:

“Sedition has become the creed (or religion) of India” was a statement made by Mahatma Gandhi during the Champaran Satyagraha (1917).

He made this remark in a court while defending himself during his trial for defying official orders under colonial rule.

Gandhi was summoned for refusing to obey a government order to leave the Champaran district while he was working to resolve issues of indigo cultivators’ exploitation.

He asserted that he was following conscience over colonial law, and thus, “sedition” (as accused by the British) had become his “religion” in the pursuit of justice.

Correct Option: (a) the Champaran Satyagraha

Question 92. The famous female figurine known as ‘Dancing Girl’, found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of:

(a) Carnelian

(b) Clay

(d) Gold

Answer: (c) Bronze

Explanation:

The ‘Dancing Girl’ is one of the most iconic artifacts from the Indus Valley Civilization, specifically discovered at Mohenjo-daro.

It is a bronze statue dating to around 2500 BCE and is about 10.5 cm tall.

The figurine shows remarkable craftsmanship and depicts a young girl in a pose that suggests confidence and liveliness, wearing bangles on her arms — a testimony to the advanced metal casting (lost-wax technique) of the Harappans.

Correct Option: (c) Bronze

Question 93. Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of the Chauri Chaura incident?

(a) C.R. Das

(b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant

(d) M. A. Jinnah

Answer: (b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant

Explanation:

The Chauri Chaura incident occurred on 5 February 1922 in Gorakhpur district (Uttar Pradesh), where a group of protesters participating in the Non-Cooperation Movement clashed with police, eventually burning a police station, resulting in the death of 22 policemen.

In the aftermath, the British authorities arrested many local participants and sentenced several to death.

Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya, a prominent nationalist and lawyer, volunteered to provide legal defence to the accused, along with Krishna Kant Malaviya (his son).

As a result of their defence, the number of death sentences was significantly reduced.

Correct Option: (b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant

Question 94. Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of ‘Harijans’ in his political and social programme?

(a) The Poona Pact

(b) The Gandhi-Irwin (Delhi Pact) Agreement

(d) Promulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935

Answer: (a) The Poona Pact

Explanation:

The Poona Pact was signed in September 1932 between Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar after Gandhi went on a fast unto death in protest against the Communal Award which provided separate electorates for the Depressed Classes.

After the Pact, Gandhi shifted greater focus to the upliftment of Dalits (then called Harijans) as part of his constructive programme.

He established the Harijan Sevak Sangh and started “Harijan” weeklies to campaign against untouchability and promote social equality.

Thus, the upliftment of Harijans became central to his social reform agenda after the Poona Pact.

Correct Option: (a) The Poona Pact

Question 95. Consider the following fruits:

I. Papaya

II. Pineapple

III. Guava

How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

The Portuguese, during their colonial presence in India in the 16th and 17th centuries, introduced many crops and fruits from the Americas (New World) to India, particularly through their trading ports in Goa and along the western coast.

Papaya – Introduced by the Portuguese. Native to Central America, it was brought to India via Portuguese traders.

Pineapple – Introduced by the Portuguese. Also native to South America, pineapple was brought to India during their colonial trade.

Guava – Though it is native to Central America, some sources suggest guava may have reached India through other trade routes as well, but it is not conclusively attributed to the Portuguese introduction in historical records, unlike papaya and pineapple.

Thus, Papaya and Pineapple were definitively introduced by the Portuguese, while Guava has a less certain origin story in India.

Correct Option: (b) Only two

UPSC Prelims 2025 Answer Key GS Paper 1

Question 96. Consider the following countries:

I. United Kingdom

II. Denmark

III. New Zealand

IV. Australia

V. Brazil

How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?

(a) All the five

(b) Only four

(d) Only two

Answer: (d) Only two

Explanation:

Let’s examine each country’s time zones:

United Kingdom –

The UK primarily uses one time zone (GMT/UTC+0 or BST during daylight saving).

Its overseas territories span multiple time zones, but the UK itself does not have more than four domestically.

Denmark –

Denmark mainly uses Central European Time (CET).

Even with Greenland (an autonomous territory), the total time zones do not exceed four.

New Zealand –

Has two main time zones: NZST (UTC+12) and Chatham Islands (UTC+12:45).

Does not have more than four.

Australia –

Australia has multiple time zones:

Western (UTC+8), Central (UTC+9:30), Eastern (UTC+10),

Plus daylight saving variations and external territories.

Total exceeds four when including all its territories.

Brazil –

Brazil spans four official time zones: UTC−5 to UTC−2.

Previously had more, and some regions still observe changes that effectively cross four zones in usage.

Final Tally:

Australia – More than 4

Brazil – More than 4

Correct Option: (d) Only two

Question 97. Consider the following statements:

I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days.

II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (a) I only

Explanation:

Statement I – Correct

Anadyr (Russia) and Nome (Alaska, USA) are geographically close, separated by the Bering Strait, but they lie on opposite sides of the International Date Line (IDL).

Because of this, there is a full 21-hour time difference (sometimes up to 24 hours depending on daylight saving), and they can be on different calendar days even at similar local times.

For example, it could be Monday morning in Anadyr and Sunday morning in Nome.

Statement II – Incorrect

The reverse is true: when it is Monday in Anadyr, it is still Sunday in Nome, due to Anadyr being ahead in time.

So, Nome lags behind Anadyr, not ahead.

Correct Option: (a) I only

Question 98. Who among the following was the founder of the ‘Self-Respect Movement’?

(a) Periyar E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker

(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

(d) Dinkarrao Javalkar

Answer: (a) Periyar E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker

Explanation:

The Self-Respect Movement was founded in 1925 by Periyar E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker in Tamil Nadu.

Its primary aim was to promote equality and eradicate caste-based discrimination, gender inequality, and Brahminical dominance.

The movement emphasized rationalism, self-respect, and social justice, especially for the non-Brahmin and marginalized communities.

It laid the ideological foundation for Dravidian politics in Tamil Nadu.

Correct Option: (a) Periyar E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker

Question 99. Consider the following pairs:

Country Resource-rich in

Botswana Diamond

Chile Lithium

Indonesia Nickel

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (c) All the three

Explanation:

Botswana – Diamond

Botswana is one of the largest producers of diamonds in the world and diamond mining plays a crucial role in its economy.

Companies like Debswana (joint venture of De Beers and Botswana government) operate major mines.

Chile – Lithium

Chile is among the top producers of lithium, especially from the Atacama Salt Flats.

Lithium is vital for battery production, and Chile is part of the “Lithium Triangle” (along with Argentina and Bolivia).

Indonesia – Nickel

Indonesia is the world’s largest producer of nickel, an essential component in stainless steel and EV battery manufacturing.

The country has banned raw nickel exports to boost domestic processing.

Correct Option: (c) All the three

Question 100. Consider the following pairs:

Region Country

I. Mallorca – Italy

II. Normandy – Spain

III. Sardinia – France

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (a) Only one

Explanation:

Mallorca – Incorrect

Mallorca is part of the Balearic Islands, which belong to Spain, not Italy.

Normandy – Incorrect

Normandy is a region in northern France, famous for the D-Day landings in WWII. It is not in Spain.

Sardinia – Correct

Sardinia is a large island region of Italy, located in the Mediterranean Sea. It is not part of France.

Correct Matching:

Only III. Sardinia–Italy would be correct (if it were written that way), but here it is incorrectly matched with France.

Hence, none of the pairs is correctly matched.

Correct Option: (d) None

Suryavanshi IAS

Sunday, May 25, 2025

UPSC Prelims 2025 Answer with explanation GS - 1

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